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ICSE Notes 2018 :Analysis of Pupil Performance of year 2017 [ ( History and Civics ) + ( Geography ) ]

56 pages, 201 questions, 3 questions with responses, 5 total responses,

Ansh Singh
City Montessori School (CMS Aliganj Campus I), Lucknow

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ICSE Analysis of Pupil Performance Research Development and Consultancy Division Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations New Delhi Year 2017 __________________________________________________________________________________ Published by: Research Development and Consultancy Division (RDCD) Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations Plot No. 35-36, Sector VI Pushp Vihar, Saket New Delhi-110017 Tel: (011) 29564831/33/37 E-mail: council@cisce.org Copyright, Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations All rights reserved. The copyright to this publication and any part thereof solely vests in the Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations. This publication and no part thereof may be reproduced, transmitted, distributed or stored in any manner whatsoever, without the prior written approval of the Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations. FOREWORD This document of the Analysis of Pupils Performance at the ISC Year 12 and ICSE Year 10 Examination is one of its kind. It has grown and evolved over the years to provide feedback to schools in terms of the strengths and weaknesses of the candidates in handling the examinations. We commend the work of Mrs. Shilpi Gupta (Deputy Head) and the Research Development and Consultancy Division (RDCD) of the Council who have painstakingly prepared this analysis. We are grateful to the examiners who have contributed through their comments on the performance of the candidates under examination as well as for their suggestions to teachers and students for the effective transaction of the syllabus. We hope the schools will find this document useful. We invite comments from schools on its utility and quality. Gerry Arathoon Chief Executive & Secretary November 2017 i PREFACE The Council has been involved in the preparation of the ICSE and ISC Analysis of Pupil Performance documents since the year 1994. Over these years, these documents have facilitated the teaching-learning process by providing subject/ paper wise feedback to teachers regarding performance of students at the ICSE and ISC Examinations. With the aim of ensuring wider accessibility to all stakeholders, from the year 2014, the ICSE and the ISC documents have been made available on the Council s website www.cisce.org. The document includes a detailed qualitative analysis of the performance of students in different subjects which comprises of examiners comments on common errors made by candidates, topics found difficult or confusing, marking scheme for each answer and suggestions for teachers/ candidates. In addition to a detailed qualitative analysis, the Analysis of Pupil Performance documents for the Examination Year 2017 have a new component of a detailed quantitative analysis. For each subject dealt with in the document, both at the ICSE and the ISC levels, a detailed statistical analysis has been done, which has been presented in a simple user-friendly manner. It is hoped that this document will not only enable teachers to understand how their students have performed with respect to other students who appeared for the ICSE/ISC Year 2017 Examinations, how they have performed within the Region or State, their performance as compared to other Regions or States, etc., it will also help develop a better understanding of the assessment/ evaluation process. This will help them in guiding their students more effectively and comprehensively so that students prepare for the ICSE/ ISC Examinations, with a better understanding of what is required from them. The Analysis of Pupil Performance document for ICSE for the Examination Year 2017 covers the following subjects: English (English Language, Literature in English), Hindi, History, Civics and Geography (History & Civics, Geography), Mathematics, Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology), Commercial Studies, Economics, Computer Applications, Economics Applications, Commercial Applications. Subjects covered in the ISC Analysis of Pupil Performance document for the Year 2017 include English (English Language and Literature in English), Hindi, Elective English, Physics (Theory and Practical), Chemistry (Theory and Practical), Biology (Theory and Practical), Mathematics, Computer Science, History, Political Science, Geography, Sociology, Psychology, Economics, Commerce, Accounts and Business Studies. I would like to acknowledge the contribution of all the ICSE and the ISC examiners who have been an integral part of this exercise, whose valuable inputs have helped put this document together. I would also like to thank the RDCD team of Dr. Manika Sharma, Dr. M.K. Gandhi, Ms. Mansi Guleria and Mrs. Roshni George, who have done a commendable job in preparing this document. The statistical data pertaining to the ICSE and the ISC Year 2017 Examinations has been provided by the IT section of the Council for which I would like to thank Col. R. Sreejeth (Deputy Secretary - IT), Mr. M.R. Felix, Education Officer (IT) ICSE and Mr. Samir Kumar, Education Officer (IT) - ISC. Shilpi Gupta Deputy Head - RDCD November 2017 ii CONTENTS Page No. FOREWORD i PREFACE ii INTRODUCTION 1 QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS HISTORY, CIVICS & GEOGRAPHY 3 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS History and Civics (H.C.G.- Paper-1) 10 Geography (H.C.G.- Paper-2) 30 INTRODUCTION This document aims to provide a comprehensive picture of the performance of candidates in the subject. It comprises of two sections, which provide Quantitative and Qualitative analysis results in terms of performance of candidates in the subject for the ICSE Year 2017 Examination. The details of the Quantitative and the Qualitative analysis are given below. Quantitative Analysis This section provides a detailed statistical analysis of the following: Overall Performance of candidates in the subject (Statistics at a Glance) State wise Performance of Candidates Gender wise comparison of Overall Performance Region wise comparison of Performance Comparison of Region wise performance on the basis of Gender Comparison of performance in different Mark Ranges and comparison on the basis of Gender for the top and bottom ranges Comparison of performance in different Grade categories and comparison on the basis of Gender for the top and bottom grades The data has been presented in the form of means, frequencies and bar graphs. Understanding the tables Each of the comparison tables shows N (Number of candidates), Mean Marks obtained, Standard Errors and t-values with the level of significance. For t-test, mean values compared with their standard errors indicate whether an observed difference is likely to be a true difference or whether it has occurred by chance. The t-test has been applied using a confidence level of 95%, which means that if a difference is marked as statistically significant (with * mark, refer to t-value column of the table), the probability of the difference occurring by chance is less than 5%. In other words, we are 95% confident that the difference between the two values is true. t-test has been used to observe significant differences in the performance of boys and girls, gender wise differences within regions (North, East, South and West), gender wise differences within marks ranges (Top and bottom ranges) and gender wise differences within grades awarded (Grade 1 and Grade 9) at the ICSE Year 2017 Examination. The analysed data has been depicted in a simple and user-friendly manner. 1 Given below is an example showing the comparison tables used in this section and the manner in which they should be interpreted. The table shows comparison between the performances of boys and girls in a particular subject. The t-value of 11.91 is significant at Comparison on the basis of Gender Gender Girls Boys *Significant at 0.05 level N 2,538 1,051 Mean 66.1 60.1 SE 0.29 0.42 t-value 11.91* 0.05 level (mentioned below the table) with a mean of girls as 66.1 and that of boys as 60.1. It means that there is significant difference between the performance of boys and girls in the subject. The probability of this difference occurring by chance is less than 5%. The mean value of girls is higher than that of boys. It can be interpreted that girls are performing significantly better than boys. The results have also been depicted pictographically. In this case, the girls performed significantly better than the boys. This is depicted by the girl with a medal. Qualitative Analysis The purpose of the qualitative analysis is to provide insights into how candidates have performed in individual questions set in the question paper. This section is based on inputs provided by examiners from examination centres across the country. It comprises of question wise feedback on the performance of candidates in the form of Comments of Examiners on the common errors made by candidates along with Suggestions for Teachers to rectify/ reduce these errors. The Marking Scheme for each question has also been provided to help teachers understand the criteria used for marking. Topics in the question paper that were generally found to be difficult or confusing by candidates, have also been listed down, along with general suggestions for candidates on how to prepare for the examination/ perform better in the examination. 2 QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS STATISTICS AT A GLANCE Total Number of Candidates: 1,75,264 Highest Marks: 100 Mean Marks: Lowest Marks: 09 70.6 3 PERFORMANCE (STATE-WISE & FOREIGN) Rajasthan Maharashtra Gujarat Goa Tamil Nadu Telangana Puducherry Kerala Karnataka Andhra Pradesh Uttarakhand Uttar Pradesh Punjab Madhya Pradesh Himachal Pradesh Haryana New Delhi Chandigarh Chattisgarh West Bengal Tripura Sikkim Orissa Nagaland Manipur Meghalaya Jharkhand Bihar Assam Arunachal Pradesh Foreign 74.2 81.2 68.9 81.2 76.4 73.3 72.5 77.0 75.9 70.6 67.0 65.4 67.4 64.0 68.2 73.7 63.4 73.3 64.2 69.9 62.7 64.2 69.0 69.4 60.3 68.6 68.4 71.8 79.0 57.1 82.6 The States of Maharashtra, Goa and Assam secured highest mean marks. Mean marks secured by candidates studying in schools abroad were 82.6. 4 GENDER-WISE COMPARISON GIRLS BOYS Mean Marks: 72.0 Mean Marks: 69.5 Number of Number of Candidates: 78,517 Candidates: 96,747 Comparison on the basis of Gender Gender Girls Boys N Mean SE t-value 78,517 96,747 72.0 69.5 0.06 0.06 29.20* *Significant at 0.05 level Girls performed significantly better than boys. 5 REGION-WISE COMPARISON East North Mean Marks: 69.5 Mean Marks: 66.1 Number of Candidates: 57,099 Number of Candidates: 63,405 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 14 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 09 Mean Marks: 75.3 REGION Number of Candidates: 33,363 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 18 South Mean Marks: 79.2 Number of Candidates: 20,975 Mean Marks: 82.6 Number of Candidates: 422 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 49 Foreign 6 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 19 West Mean Marks obtained by Boys and Girls-Region wise 67.6 65.1 North 70.5 76.5 68.8 East 80.6 74.1 South 83.0 78.1 West 82.2 Foreign Comparison on the basis of Gender within Region Region North (N) East (E) South (S) West (W) Foreign (F) Gender Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys *Significant at 0.05 level N Mean SE 27,140 36,265 25,362 31,737 16,501 16,862 9,309 11,666 205 217 67.6 65.1 70.5 68.8 76.5 74.1 80.6 78.1 83.0 82.2 0.11 0.10 0.11 0.10 0.11 0.12 0.15 0.15 0.76 0.78 t-value 17.06* 11.07* 14.62* 11.82* 0.71 REGION (N, E, S, W) 7 MARK RANGES : COMPARISON GENDER-WISE Comparison on the basis of gender in top and bottom mark ranges Marks Range Top Range (81-100) Bottom Range (0-20) *Significant at 0.05 level Gender Girls Boys Girls Boys N Mean SE 30,243 32,729 69 237 89.2 89.0 19.1 19.1 0.03 0.03 0.17 0.09 Boys Girls t-value 4.40* 0.17 All Candidates Marks Range (81-100) 89.0 81 - 100 Performance of girls was 89.2 89.1 significantly better than the performance of boys. 70.9 61 - 80 71.3 71.1 Marks Range (81-100) 50.3 41 - 60 50.6 50.4 35.6 Marks Range (0-20) 21 - 40 36.1 35.8 No significant difference was observed between the average 19.1 performance of girls and boys. 0 - 20 19.1 19.1 8 GRADES AWARDED : COMPARISON GENDER-WISE Comparison on the basis of gender in Grade 1 and Grade 9 Grades Gender Grade 1 Grade 9 Girls Boys Girls Boys N Mean SE 14,319 15,014 69 237 93.7 93.6 19.1 19.1 0.02 0.02 0.17 0.09 Boys Girls t-value 1.04 0.17 All Candidates 93.6 93.7 93.7 1 In Grade 1 and Grade 9 no significant difference was 84.6 84.6 84.6 2 observed between the average performance of girls and boys. 75.6 75.6 75.6 3 66.6 66.7 66.7 4 56.8 56.8 56.8 5 47.1 47.2 47.1 6 40.1 40.3 40.2 7 8 9 9 26.0 26.3 26.1 19.1 19.1 19.1 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS HISTORY AND CIVICS (H.C.G.-PAPER-1) PART I (30 Marks) Attempt all questions from this Part Question 1 (a) State any one federal feature of the Indian Constitution. [1] (b) How are the Rajya Sabha members elected? [1] (c) Who presides over the Joint Session of the two Houses of Parliament? [1] (d) Under what condition can a non-member of Parliament be made a Minister? [1] (e) When can the Speaker of the Lok Sabha cast his vote? [1] (f) When can the President use his Discretionary power to appoint the Prime Minister? [1] (g) What is meant by Collective Responsibility' of the Cabinet? [1] (h) How long can the Rajya Sabha retain the money bill sent by the Lok Sabha? [1] (i) State one other qualification required to become a Judge of the High Court, apart [1] from Indian citizenship. (j) Mention one reason to state that the Lok Adalat has its own advantage. 10 [1] Comments of Examiners (a) Majority of the candidates were able to answer this question correctly. However, few lacked the knowledge of Federal form of Government and explained the features of the Parliamentary form of Government. (b) Most of the candidates answered the question correctly. A few made mistakes and wrote elected by the President or elected indirectly . (c) Most of the candidates wrote the correct answer. Some were confused and wrote President instead of Speaker . (d) This part was generally answered correct but a few mentioned six weeks instead of six months . (e) Majority of the candidates answered the question correctly. (f) Some candidates were not clear about the discretionary power of the President related to the appointment of Prime minister. They mentioned wrongly that on the death of the Prime Minister, the President uses this power to appoint the Prime Minister. (g) This part was well understood and attempted well by majority of the candidates. (h) Most of the candidates answered correctly. A few mentioned 15 days instead of 14 days . (i) Most of the candidates wrote the correct answer although a few failed to mention the time period 10 years and some mentioned the age as 62 years, which is not correct. (j) Most candidates could attempt this question correctly. Suggestions for teachers - - - - - - - - - Highlight the meaning of federal and explain clearly that it means Bicameral Legislature, dual polity and written Constitution, etc. Explain who elects whom ; Rajya Sabha represents the states; hence elected members of the State Legislature elect the members of the Rajya Sabha. Clarify the powers and functions of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Clarify that there are exceptions in choosing the ministers. It need not always be elected member of the Parliament. Lay stress on the word tie so that students do not confuse it with the functions of the President. Teach the meaning of Discretionary Powers of the President to appoint the the Prime Minister. Explain the meaning of collective responsibility of the Cabinet for their acts thoroughly. The position of the Rajya Sabha must be made clear while teaching the financial powers of the Parliament. Explain to students clearly the qualifications required to become a Judge of the High Court. Make students understand the meaning of the word Lok Adalat and its advantages. MARKING SCHEME Question 1 (a) They are: (i) A written constitution (ii) Bicameral legislature (iii) An independent judiciary/ (Supreme Court is the Final Interpreter of the Constitution) (iv) Division of powers /(between the Union and the States) (b) They are elected indirectly by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies. 11 (c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (d) If the Prime Minister so desires, however he/she must be elected / nominated to either house before six months. (e) When the votes for and against in the House on a proposal are equal, the speaker gives a casting vote. This vote decides whether or not the proposal will be passed. (f) When no political party has received an absolute majority, when there is a hung Parliament or a coalition government. (g) The Cabinet is collectively responsible to the Parliament and has to resign if it loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha. (Team/Joint Work Responsibility/Swim & Sink together) (h) 14 days (i) 1. He should have held a judicial office for at least ten years. 2. He must have been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years. (j) Speedy justice/ (Reduces Delay/Save Time) Is affordable /(inexpensive, cheap, economical) Caters to the weaker sections of society No compromise/ (settle disputes through compromise, understanding) Reduces the workload of other courts. Awards passed by Lok Adalat are final and binding on the parties. / (No appeal) Question 2 (a) Mention any two Repressive Colonial policies of Lord Lytton. [2] (b) Name the two main Associations that were the precursors of the Indian National [2] Congress. (c) Give the names of two leaders who led the Home Rule Movement in India. [2] (d) What was the Khilafat Movement? [2] (e) State any two provisions of the Rowlatt Act passed by the Government in 1919. [2] (f) Mention any two objectives of the Indian National Army. [2] (g) Why did Mahatma Gandhi start his historic march to Dandi? [2] (h) State the significance of the Policy of Appeasement as a cause for the Second [2] World War. (i) Give the reason as to why Japan invaded China. [2] (j) Mention any two functions of UNESCO in the field of Education. [2] 12 Comments of Examiners (a) Majority of the candidates answered well but a few of them were confused with the repressive policies of Lord Curzon and mentioned Partitioning of Bengal, Calcutta Corporation Act and Universities Act, etc. (b) The word precursors was misinterpreted by some candidates as personalities . Otherwise most of the candidates could write the correct answer. (c) Answered correctly by the majority of the candidates. However, a few were confused and wrote the names of early nationalists or assertive leaders. Some even mentioned Nehru and Bose. (d) Majority of the candidates answered this question correctly along with the names of Ali Brothers. (e) Most of the candidates wrote the answer correctly. A few candidates wrote vague points and failed to mention the provisions of the Rowlatt Act. (f) Many candidates confused the objectives of 1NA with the objectives of forward Bloc. A few mentioned only one objective. (g) Most of the candidates were able to answer the question correctly- to break the salt law. (h) Some candidates were unable to comprehend the question and gave wrong answers. (i) The question was answered vaguely. Candidates wrote about the Japanese invasion on China in general. They failed to mention the policy of expansion or the conquest of Manchuria. (j) Common errors in this question basically were that candidates mixed-up the functions of UNESO with UNICEF and WHO. 13 Suggestions for teachers - - - - - Advise students to read the question carefully and answer the question as per the requirement. The question clearly asked for the repressive policies of Lord Lytton and not of Lord Curzon. Kindly refer to the scope of the syllabus and teach accordingly. Give the relevance of the Khilafat Movement in relation to the First World War and the support given to it by Gandhiji. Advise students to be very specific in explaining the provisions of the important Acts. Explain the difference between the INA and the Forward Bloc. The meaning of Appeasement must be explained thoroughly to students. Explain the various reasons as to why Japan invaded China and highlight those points which are relevant. For conceptual clarity of the students, give them to prepare a chart reflecting comparative differences of UNESCO, UNICEF and WHO. MARKING SCHEME Question 2 (a) Arms Act (1878) and Vernacular Press Act (1878). The Imperial Darbar at Delhi/The age limit for the ICS Exam reduced/Import duties on Indian Textile) (Any two points) (b) Indian National Association, the East India Association, Indian National Conference. (Any two points) (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak & Dr. Annie Besant. (d) (i) The Caliph of Turkey lost all territories inhabited by peoples other than Turks. (ii) The Sultan was deprived of real authority over such territories and this angered the Muslims in India. (iii) A Khilafat Committee was formed to champion the cause of the Caliph of Turkey by the Ali brothers. Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali. (Any two points) (e) (f) Rowlatt Act: (i) Arrest of a person without warrant. (ii) In camera trial (trial in seclusion). (iii) Restrictions on movements of individuals (iv) Suspension of the Right of Habeas Corpus. / (No dalil No vakil No appeal) Objectives of the INA: (i) To organise an armed revolution and to fight the British army with modern arms. (ii) Since it was not possible for the Indians to organise an armed revolution from their homeland, this task must be assigned to Indians living abroad, particularly to Indians living in East Asia. (iii) To organise a provisional government of Free India in order to mobilise all the forces effectively. (iv) Total mobilisation of Indian man -power and money for a total war. (v) The motto of the INA was unity, faith, sacrifice. (vi) To lead the Indian people to regain their lost freedom. (vii) To liberate India from the British Rule 14 ( Any two points) (g) (i) The government did not reply to Gandhiji s eleven-point ultimatum. (ii) He selected to attack the salt laws because the salt-tax affected all sections of society, especially the poor. (iii) By breaking the salt laws it marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement. (Any two points) (h) (i) Appeasement meant accepting the hostile demands of an aggressive nation to gain peace. (ii) Britain and France followed the policy of appeasement towards dictatorial countries like Germany and Italy because they felt that the dictators had a real cause of grievance due to the humiliating terms of the Treaty of Versailles. (iii) Hitler sees it as a great sign of weakness of the Allied powers and begins his plan to attack that unleashes the Second World War. The compromise was a sign of great weakness. (Any two points) (i) (i) Japan s policy of expansion. (Policy of Imperialism) (ii) Japan was determined to dominate the Far East. (iii) Japan s ambitions for more conquests and for more wealth increased after the First World War, Japan was not satisfied with only Manchuria. (Any two points) (j) (i) Removal of illiteracy by encouragement of adult education. (ii) Financial assistance for the education of disabled children. (iii) Provision of grants and fellowships to teachers and scholars, organization of library. (iv) Organisation of book fairs and festivals at international and national levels. (v) Encouragement of science education by providing regional training centres. (vi) Promotion of education as an instrument for international understanding. (Any two points) 15 PART II (50 Marks) SECTION A Attempt any two questions from this Section Question 3 The Powers and Functions of the Indian Parliament are wide ranging. In this context answer the following: (a) Explain three ways by which the Legislature exercises control over the Executive. [3] (b) Mention any three Special powers of the Rajya Sabha that is usually not enjoyed by the other House. [3] (c) Mention any two Judicial powers and any two Electoral powers of the Indian Parliament. [4] Comments of Examiners Suggestions for teachers (a) Most of the candidates were able to write the correct answer. However, some were confused and wrote the - Explain to candidates the various methods legislative power of the Parliament. through which the Parliament controls (b) Most of the candidates wrote the correct answer. A the Executive or the Council of few mentioned the powers of Lok Sabha. Ministers. (c) Candidates got confused between the Judicial and - Powers of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Electoral powers of the Parliament and some of them should be clearly explained with also confused it with the Legislative Powers. reference to the special powers. - The meaning of Judicial and Electoral powers must be clearly explained. While explaining, differences between the two powers should also be made clear to the students. MARKING SCHEME Question 3 (a) Three ways are: (i) Interpellation- Through the Question Hour, Calling Attention notices and Half an Hour discussions, the members obtain information on a matter of public importance or grievance. It keeps the government on its toes. 16 (ii) Vote of no confidence If the government (executive) acts in an unconstitutional manner, or against constitutional provisions, then it can be voted out of office through the vote of no-confidence. (iii) Adjournment motion Though allowed on occasions of natural/ national tragedies, etc, it is also aimed at censuring acts of omission and commission of the ministers. (iv) Censure Motion . (b) (Any three points) They are: (i) It may by a resolution adopted by 2/3rd majority, empower the Parliament to make laws with respect to subjects in the State List. (ii) It may declare the creation of a new All India Service in the national interest. (iii) If Lok Sabha is dissolved before or after the declaration of national emergency, Rajya Sabha takes over the functions of the Parliament. (iv) It is a permanent House. (c) (Any three points) Judicial Powers: (i) Impeachment of President. (ii) Removal of Judges of Supreme Court and High Court. (iii) The Parliament may punish a person for obstructing the work of Parliament or showing disrespect for the House. (Any two points) Elective Powers: (i) Election of the President of India. (ii) Vice-President of India is elected by both houses of Parliament. (iii) Electing the Speaker of the Lok Sabha only by its own members and the Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha only by the upper House. (Any two points) 17 Question 4 The Union Executive which consists of the President, Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers is a powerful body in a Parliamentary Democracy. In this context answer the following questions: (a) State the position of the Prime Minister and state any two of his powers in relation to [3] the President. (b) Mention the three categories of Ministers in order of their rank and status. [3] (c) Mention any four Legislative powers of the Cabinet. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) The candidates were generally able to write the answer correctly but some were not clear regarding the powers of the Prime Minister in relation to the President. Some were confused with the powers in relation to the Council of Ministers. (b) This part was generally answered well. A few candidates were unable to write the correct rank and status of the three categories of ministers. (c) Candidates were unsure of the legislative powers of the Cabinet. Some wrote the functions of the Cabinet and other powers of the Cabinet. 18 Suggestions for teachers Explain that the Prime Minister is the Real head and the President is the nominal head. All work done by the President is on the advice of the Prime Minister. Emphasis must be on how to write and learn the three categories of Ministers in order of rank. Also explain to students the difference among the three categories. Explain to students that legislative powers, executive powers and functions of the Cabinet are all different. MARKING SCHEME Question 4 (a) The Prime Minister enjoys a unique position in the Indian political set up. All the powers listed under the President of India are actually exercised by the Prime Minister. As the Executive head of the Indian State, the following are his powers and functions: (Any one point) (i) He is the real leader of the Nation. (ii) He is the leader of the Council of Ministers. (iii) He is the presiding officer of the Cabinet meetings. (iv) He is the link between the Cabinet and the President. (v) He is the leader of the House (Lok Sabha). (vi) Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. (vii) President summon & prorogues Parliament on the advice of P.M. (viii) Issue Ordinance on the advice of P.M. (b) (Any two points) The categories in order of their rank and status are: (i) Cabinet Ministers- Most important and senior members of the Council of Ministers and they hold important portfolios. (ii) Ministers of State- They may or may not hold independent charge of any portfolios. Neither does the Prime Minister consult them on regular basis. (iii)Deputy Ministers- They normally assist the first two categories of Ministers. (Any three points) (c) Legislative Powers: (i) Introduction of Bills. (ii) Source of Information (iii) Amendment to the Constitution (iv) Summoning the Houses of Parliament. (v) President s Special Address (vi) Issuing Ordinances (Any four points) 19 Question 5 With reference to the powers and functions of the High Court. Explain briefly the meaning and scope of the following: (a) Its Appellate Jurisdiction. [3] (b) The High Court as a Court of Record. [3] (c) Judicial Review. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) Most candidates answered incorrectly as they failed to comprehend the meaning of Appellate Jurisdiction and the various cases that comes under it. A few confused it with the original jurisdiction. (b) This part was answered correctly by most candidates. (c) Most candidates answered correctly with a few being unable to understand the Revisory jurisdiction of the High Court. Suggestions for teachers - Guide students to write examples - correctly in order to enhance their performance. It is imperative that Judicial Review be explained thoroughly to students. Each function of the High Court should be explained to give students a clear concept of the functions. MARKING SCHEME Question 5 (a) Appellate Jurisdiction: The High Court has the powers to accept appeals against the decisions of District Courts, in Civil as well as Criminal matters.: Civil Cases: (i) In matter concerning land revenue (ii) In cases where blatant injunctions been committed by any Tribunal. Criminal Cases: (i) Against the judgement of a session judge or an additional judge where the sentence of imprisonment exceeds 7 years. (ii) Against the judgement of an Assistant Session Judge, the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate, where the sentence of imprisonment exceeds 4 years. 20 (b) Court of Record (i) Its judgement and orders are preserved as a record to be referred to by its courts in future cases. They can be produced as precedents. (ii) The High Court can punish anyone who commits a contempt of its orders. (c) If any law, executive order or any ordinance passed by the State Legislature or any other authority infringes the Fundamental Rights or on any provision of the Constitution, the High Court can declare it null and void . (Any two points) SECTION B Attempt any three questions from this Section Question 6 With reference to the rise of National Consciousness in India, explain the following: (a) The influence of Western Education. [3] (b) Any three contributions of Raja Rammohan Roy. [3] (c) The development of Modern means of Transport and Communication. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates answered correctly. A few candidates wrote about the negative impact of western education as a cause of the Revolt of 1857. Suggestions for teachers (b) This part was generally answered correctly by most of the candidates. A few mentioned Arya Samaj instead of Brahmo Samaj . (c) Some candidates misunderstood the question and gave negative points rather than positive points of development, like, telegraph poles were erected to hang Indians and Railway was introduced to break the social order . 21 Train students to write on what the question asks for and to be specific in their answers. Reform Movements and the Contribution made by the leaders mentioned in the syllabus should be clearly explained in class discussions. Discuss modern means of transport and communication in relevance to its contribution to the rise of nationalism in the country. MARKING SCHEME Question 6 (a) The influence of Western Education. It provided opportunities for assimilating ideas of democracy and nationalism. Educated Indians had access to ideals of liberty, equality, nationality, rule of law and selfGovernment. The English language too served as a link language, uniting people and developing a sense of National consciousness. People in India drew inspiration from the American War of Independence and the French Revolution. (any three points ) (b) Contributions of Raja Rammohan Roy (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) (ix) (x) (c) Advocated Monotheism Liberty Rights and a free press Started his anti-Sati crusade Woman s emancipation Uplifted the cause of the poor peasants who were exploited by the Zamindars. Impressed upon the Government to make the English language the medium of Education. Literature he started Samvad Kaumudi /Mirat-ul-Akbar Wanted the Military Budget to be reduced. Founded Brahmo Samaj. He was against caste system/child marriage. (any three points) Development of modern means of transport and communication. The development of the postal system, telegraph, railways and roads helped to unify the country. There was speedy transmission of messages and communication. This enabled the Indians to come in contact with one another and discuss the problems facing one another. (any four points) 22 Question 7 The conflict between the two sections of the Congress came to surface in its Session in 1906 at Calcutta. In this context explain the following: (a) The Split in the Congress in 1907. [3] (b) With reference to the picture given below, answer the following: [3] (c) (i) What were the three personalities popularly known as? (ii) Which section of the Congress did they represent? (iii) Mention two of their popular Beliefs. State any four methods that they advocated for the achievement of their aims. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) Most candidates answered this part correctly. A few however, were unsure of the correct facts and wrote general answers. (b) (i) Most candidates identified the personalities correctly. (ii) While most candidates answered correctly, a few candidates were unsure of the answer and wrote moderates or early nationalists . (iii) A few answered incorrectly as they wrote on the beliefs of the moderates. (c) Some candidates were confused with methods and beliefs and wrote their achievements too. 23 Suggestions for teachers While explaining lay stress on the ideological differences and the tussle for the Presidential candidates. Train students to identify pictures. Ensure that the students understand the meaning of the terms - methods, beliefs, aims and achievements, to avoid any confusion. MARKING SCHEME Question 7 (a) The Assertive Nationalists wanted to extend Swadeshi and boycott to the rest of India. The Early Nationalists however wanted to confine it to Bengal only. They also were opposed to openly supporting boycott. There were differences regarding the election of the INC President too. (b) (i) The trio - Bal Lal Pal (ii) Assertive Nationalists (iii) Supremacy of Indian Culture. No faith in the goodness of the British. (c) The methods advocated by the Assertive nationalists to achieve their aims were: (i) They propagated boycott of foreign goods and the use of Swadeshi. (ii) These leaders inculcated national pride by extolling India s past. (iii) They introduced new methods of waging political struggle like non-cooperation, passive resistance, mass agitation and self-reliance. (iv) Many new educational institutions were set up during the Swadeshi movement. (v) Revived Shivaji festival and presented Rana Pratap and Shivaji as National Heroes. (Any four points) Question 8 The period between 1920 to 1947 was marked with major events and reforms that finally led us to our Independence. In this context, answer the following questions: (a) State three provisions of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact as a result of the Civil Disobedience Movement. [3] (b) How did the Congress and the Muslim League respond to the Cabinet Mission Plan? [3] (c) Mention any four clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan. [4] 24 Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates wrote correct provisions of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. However, a few mentioned those provisions which were not correct. (b) Many candidates were not able to write the answer correctly. The response of the Congress and the Muslim League was not written separately. (c) In this question, several candidates got confused between the Mountbatten Plan and the Indian Independence Act. Suggestions for teachers Ensure students write their answer correctly. Historical facts / clauses / provisions cannot be diluted or misquoted. Guide them to present their answers in a factual manner. Guide students to understand the views of both the Muslim League and the Congress separately. How both responded to the plan should be explained comprehensively. Explain the Cabinet Mission Plan, Mountbatten Plan and the Indian Independence Act separately. Written assignments will benefit the students immensely. MARKING SCHEME Question 8 (a) The movement was suspended after Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in 1931. (i) The Governor General agreed to release all political prisoners except those guilty of violence. (ii) To give back to the Congressmen their confiscated properties. (iii) To permit peaceful picketing of liquor and foreign cloth shops. (iv) To allow people living near the seashore to manufacture salt. (v) Gandhiji agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement. (Any three points (b) The Congress reacted in the following ways, it felt that: (i) Provinces should be free to opt out of a group to which they did not belong. (ii) It accepted with reservations. It accepted only that part of the scheme which dealt with the constitution making. (iii) e.g. Assam in Group C had a Congress government and hence wanted optional grouping. (iv) The Congress rejected Viceroys offer to form an Interim Govt. (Any two points) Muslim League: (i) The League criticized the proposals because the demand for Pakistan had not been accepted in clear-cut terms at first. (ii) Later it accepted the plan as it saw in the plan the seeds of Pakistan. The President of the 25 Muslim League Mohammed Ali Jinnah wanted compulsory grouping. (iii) Jinnah interpreted the regional group of Provinces as recognition of his Pakistan demand. (Any two points) (c) Clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan: (i) Federal Union (ii) Powers of the Union (iii) Provincial Autonomy (iv) Grouping of Provinces (v) Formation of a Constituent Assembly (vi) Representation of Minorities (vii) Formation of an Interim Government (viii) Freedom to join the Commonwealth (ix) Transfer of Power (Any four points) Question 9 The 1914 and 1939 Wars that engulfed almost the entire world, were known as World Wars due to its unprecedented impact and damage. In this context, answer the following: (a) Explain the immediate cause of the First World War. [3] (b) Explain the consequences of the Second World War with reference to the Cold War. [3] (c) Mention any four terms of the Treaty of Versailles which affected Germany after World War I. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) This part was answered correctly by most candidates. A few candidates wrote other causes in place of the immediate cause. A few candidates confused it with the immediate cause of the First War of Independence 1857. (b)Some candidates misunderstood the question and over looked the Cold war . They wrote other consequences of the Second World War without referring to the Cold war. (c)Most candidates answered correctly. However, a few candidates wrote other terms of the Treaty which did not affect Germany. 26 Suggestions for teachers - Explain the causes of the World Wars specifically in relation to their impact. - Instruct students to read and understand the question before making any attempt to answer. - Guide them to write specific answers rather than general statements. MARKING SCHEME Question 9 (a) Archduke Francis Ferdinand, the heir to the throne of Austria was assassinated at Sarajevo, the capital of Bosnia. This assassination was carried out by a secret society called Union of Death formed by extremist Serbian nationalists whose aim was to unite all Serbians into a single state. Austria served an ultimatum to Serbia making 11 demands. Serbia accepted most of them except those that would have led to the loss of sovereignty. On July 28, 1914, Austria declared war on Serbia. This was the beginning of the First World War. (Brief narration of the event with three major points) (b) The United States and Russia emerged as great powers in the world. The entire world seemed to be divided into two Power Blocs and this led to the emergence of Cold War between the Western powers led by USA and the Communist Bloc led by Russia. Cold War is a state of extreme political unfriendliness between two or more countries, although they do not fight each other. It was a condition of uneasy peace . Cold War set in motion a mad race for armaments. It also led to the formation of various military alliances such as NATO or North Atlantic Treaty Organisation under US leadership and the Warsaw Pact signed by the representatives of Russia and other Communist countries. (Any three points) (c) Treaty of Versailles concerning Germany It was declared guilty of aggression and had to pay war reparation of 33 billion dollars. / The area of the Rhine valley was demilitarized and the German territory, west of Rhine was to be occupied by the Allied troops for 15 years. / Danzig became a free port in Polish territory / Lost Alsace Lorraine to France. / The Saar coal mines were given to France. / Lost all her colonies to the allies. The German force was restricted to 1 lakh, the Navy to 15,000 men and 24 ships / The Air force and submarines were banned. (Any four points) 27 Question 10 The horrors of the two World Wars, led to the formation of the United Nations Organisation, while the formation of the Non-Aligned Movement followed later. In this context, answer the following: (a) Mention any three aims and objectives of the United Nations Organisation. [3] (b) Explain any three functions of the Security Council. [3] (c) Explain any four factors that led to the formation of the Non-Aligned Movement. [4] Suggestions for teachers Comments of Examiners (a) This part was answered correctly by most candidates but a few confused the objectives of the UNO with the functions of UNO. - (b) Majority of candidates answered the question correctly. However, a few candidates wrote the composition of the Security Council rather than its functions. - (c) Most candidates wrote correct answers. Few however were confused and wrote other factors not related to the Non-Aligned Movement. - Guide students to write answers with an emphasis on writing key words and points. Advise students to learn the facts well so that they can write quality answers specially in direct questions. Train students to learn all the factors of Non-Aligned Movement to help them in improving their performance. MARKING SCHEME Question 10 (a) To maintain international peace and security / to develop friendly relations among nations / to achieve international cooperation in solving international economic, social, cultural or humanitarian problems / to be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations / disarm, decolonise, develop to save succeeding generations from the Scourge of war/to create faith in Human Rights. (Any three points) (b) Functions and Powers: (i) To maintain international peace and security in accordance with the principles and purposes of the United Nations (ii) To investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction and to take military action against an aggressor. (iii) To recommend methods of adjusting such disputes or the terms of settlement. (iv) To formulate plans for the establishment of a system to regulate armaments. (v) To determine the existence of a threat to the peace or act of aggression and to recommend what action should be taken. (vi) To call on members to apply economic sanctions and other measures not involving the use of 28 force to prevent or stop aggression. (vii)To take military action against an aggressor (viii)To recommend the admission of new members. (ix) To appoint the Secretary General (c) (Any three points) Factors responsible for Non-Alignment: (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) Global tension caused by Cold War Struggle against imperialism and new colonization Right of independent judgement Use of moderation in relations to all big powers Restructuring international economic order Formation of a collective force. Reaction against the system of Military Alliances. Need for Peace. (Any four points) GENERAL COMMENTS Topics found difficult/ confusing by candidates Suggestions for candidates Discretionary Power of the President. Policy of Appeasement. Japan s invasion of China. Judicial Review of the High Court. Repressive Colonial Policies of Lord Lytton. Special Powers of the Rajya Sabha. Appellate Jurisdiction of the High Court. Popular Beliefs and Methods of the Assertive Nationalists. Study the entire syllabus, avoid selective study. Every topic must be studied with sub-headings, to achieve clarity. Try to comprehend the topic instead of just learning it. Written practice of questions must be done, keeping in mind the format of the question paper. Regular revision is important. Read and understand the question carefully. The demands of the question must be identified before writing the answer. Be brief and to the point. Repetition of points must be avoided. Presentation of answers should be neat and in legible handwriting. Refer to authentic books and websites for in-depth knowledge. Questions must be numbered correctly, using the same system as given in the question paper. 29 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS GEOGRAPHY (H.C.G.-PAPER-2) PART 1(30 MARKS) Attempt all questions from this Part. Question 1 Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) Give the six-figure grid reference for: (i) The highest point in this map extract. (ii) Surveyed tree north of Rampura Khera. On which bank of Sukli Nadi lies: (i) Butri (ii) Padrugarh Differentiate between the drainage pattern shown in grid square: (i) 0704 (ii) 0705 The region in this map extract receives seasonal rainfall. Give two reasons for your answer. Calculate the distance in km between settlement Bhatana and Makawal along the cart track. State the Compass direction of the following: (i) Dattani from Marol. (ii) Dhavli from Makawal. (i) Mention a social activity of people living in Marol. (ii) What is the main occupation of the people living in this region? [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] (h) What do you understand by: (i) The black broken line in 0807 (ii) The vertical black line close to Easting 10 [2] (i) What is the main source of water supply to Bhatana? Give a reason for your answer. (i) Name one natural feature in the grid square 0905. (ii) Identify one man made feature in the grid square 1003. [2] (j) 30 [2] Comments of Examiners (a) A number of candidates were unable to calculate the Suggestions for teachers six-figure grid reference. Give extensive practice in studying the (b) Many candidates were unsure of the left and right extract of the Survey of India Map bank and incorrectly wrote east and west bank . Sheet No. 45D/10 for: A few were unable to identify the bank of Sukli locating features with the help of six figure grid reference. Nadi. identification of landforms marked by (c) Most candidates answered correctly. contours, relative height/depth. (d) This part was answered correctly by most interpretation of colour tints and candidates. conventional symbols. (e) Some candidates did not write the unit of identification of drainage and measurement. settlement patterns. (f) Most candidates answered correctly. Guide students to measure the distance and convert it in km using the scale of (g) (i) The term social activity was not understood the map. by some candidates who incorrectly wrote agriculture/worshipping in the temples/ Tell students that the unit is compulsory for all questions where calculation of priesthood instead of monthly fair at Marol . any type is done. (ii) While most candidates answered correctly, Insist that only 8 cardinal points are some wrote animal rearing/irrigation, etc. needed and accordingly give thorough (h) (i) Some of the candidates could not identify practice to students. Explain that the main source must be a disappearing stream . perennial one. Highlight that the (ii) Some candidates incorrectly wrote latitude in identification of any feature should be place of longitude . supported by proof or evidence. (i) Most candidates failed to understand the meaning of source of water supply and as a result the second part of the answer was answered incorrectly. Candidates wrote rivers/tanks instead of perennial lined wells . (j) (i) Some candidates wrote broken land instead of broken ground . (ii) Man made feature was identified correctly by most candidates. 31 MARKING SCHEME Question 1 (a) (b) (c) (i) Highest point (spot height 365) 078065 (ii) Surveyed tree 072074 (i) Butri Left Bank (ii) Padrugarh Right (i) 0704 Trellised (ii) 0705 Radial (d) Cart Track motorable in the dry season/ dry tanks / dry river beds / seasonal streams. (e) 4.9 km 5 km. (f) (i) South west (ii) North east (i) Monthly fair at Marol (ii) Cultivation / farming / agriculture (i) Undefined drainage pattern / disappearing drainage pattern. (ii) Longitude line 72o 35' east (g) (h) (Any two) (i) Perennial lined wells are marked all over the settlement and the seasonal tank is dry inthe dry season. (j) (i) 0905 broken ground / isolated hillocks / seasonal streams. (ii) 1003 PO / Temple / permanent settlement / cart track / seasonal tank / seasonal tank with embankment / perennial lined well. (Any one) 32 (Any one) Question 2 On the outline map of India provided: (a) Draw and name the Tropic of Cancer. [1] (b) Label the river Godavari. [1] (c) Mark and name the Garo Hills. [1] (d) Mark C on the coal fields in Jharia. [1] (e) Mark with an arrow and name the NE monsoon over the Bay of Bengal. [1] (f) Shade and name the Gulf of Kutch. [1] (g) Shade and name the coastal plain that receives rainfall in October-November. [1] (h) Mark with a dot and name Delhi. [1] (i) Shade a region with Black Cotton Soil. [1] (j) Use an arrow to point at a densely populated state in South India. [1] Comments of Examiners Suggestions for teachers (a) Most of the candidates drew the Tropic of Cancer as a straight line cutting through Gulf of Kutch Give practice to students in drawing the tropic of Cancer as a dotted curved line. instead of an arc (curved line). Correct location of the hills must be (b) Most candidates marked Godavari correctly. reinforced through regular practice. (c) Garo hill was not marked correctly by many candidates. Some candidates confused it with Encourage students to use arrows for marking location/ areas/ places/ direction Khasi and Jaintia . correctly and clearly. The arrow head (d) Jharia was not marked correctly by a few must be pointed towards the feature. candidates. (e) Most candidates marked the NE Monsoon over the Guide students to shade and name correctly, for which continuous practice Bay of Bengal correctly, However, in several is required. cases, the arrow head was incorrectly pointed Drill marking of the soil without touching towards Myanmar and Bangladesh. the Coast. (f) Most candidates marked Gulf of Kutch correctly. (g) A few candidates shaded the entire east coast area Stress upon regular practice in map work with instruction on how to mark features while some candidates shaded over the water area. correctly. (h) Some candidates marked Delhi anywhere along the Yamuna. (i) The region with black cotton soil was correctly marked by most candidates. (j) Some candidates did not demarcate the area correctly - the arrow was marked haphazardly. Some candidates shaded the entire area of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. 33 MARKING SCHEME Question 2 Map 34 Question 3 (a) Mention the four seasons that prevail in India stating the months for each. [2] (b) State the agricultural benefits derived from: [2] (c) (i) The Westerly Depressions in Punjab. (ii) The Kalbaisakhi in Assam. [3] Give a reason for each of the following: (i) Kolkata receives heavier rain than Lucknow. (ii) The Summer Monsoon winds blows over the Arabian Sea from the South-west. (iii) Thar is a desert. (d) [3] Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: Month JAN FEB MAR APR MAY JUN JUL AUG SEP OCT NOV DEC 12.0 25.5 26.3 27.1 30.0 36.2 36.0 35.9 30.3 28.4 21.0 16.6 1.5 0.1 0.0 1.4 1.1 21.0 25.3 27.2 24.0 9.4 1.5 0.4 Temp. C Rainfall cm (i) What is the annual range temperature of the station? (ii) What is the total annual rainfall experienced by the station? (iii) Why would it be correct to presume that the station lies in the interior and not on the coast? 35 Comments of Examiners (a) Most candidates answered correctly. Many could not write the months for each season prevailing in India. (b) (i)-(ii)Agricultural benefits derived from Westerly depression in Punjab and Kalbaisakhi in Assam was not understood by most candidates who explained the terms and the process instead of naming the crop as benefit. (c) (i)Many candidates were not sure about the location of Kolkata and Lucknow hence, incorrectly answered about the location and direction of wind. (ii)Coriolis force was not clear. Summer, monsoon winds over the Arabian sea from SW was explained by candidates however, the bifurcation and deflection at the equator was not clear. Suggestions for teachers For a better understanding, students must be taught the seasons in a sequence. Advise students to read the question carefully and then write the answer accordingly. Explain clearly to students the difference between NE and SW Monsoon. Explain the location, places with a map. Basic concept of change in wind movement direction must be explained comprehensively. The Coriolis effect must also be taught. Revise concepts based on the climate data and give class tests. Develop reasoning skills through classroom discussions. (iii)This part was answered correctly by most candidates. (d) (i)Most of the candidates wrote annual range temperature of the station correctly. (ii)Many candidates calculated total annual rainfall experienced by the station correctly but did not express the unit of measure. (iii)Many candidates were unable to answer this part correctly. They were unable to realize the implication of high annual range of temperature. MARKING SCHEME Question 3 (a) (b) Cold/winter December to February Hot /summer March to May Monsoon June to September Retreating monsoon October, November (i) (ii) Westerly Depression wheat and barley in Punjab Kalbaisakhi tea in Assam 36 (c) (d) (i) Kolkata is situated in the Ganga delta region whereas Lucknow is located inland in the middle course of the Ganga. The Bay of Bengal branch of the SW monsoon is exhausted as it blows up the Ganga Plain. Therefore, Kolkata receives more rainfall than Lucknow. (ii) As the SE trade winds cross the Equator they are deflected to their right (according to Ferrel s law) and blow towards the West coast from the South West when they cross the Arabian Sea. (iii) - The Arabian Sea branch of SW monsoon blows parallel to the Aravalli that do not intercept the winds. Therefore, no rain. Less than 25 cm rainfall occurs in winter due to the westerly depressions. - The Bay of Bengal branch of SW monsoon is exhausted by the time it reaches the windward slopes of the Aravallis. These winds shed no rain on the leeward side where the Thar Desert lies. - Humidity is very low in summer. The moisture evaporates before it could rain. The moisture laden winds blowing over Rajasthan do not saturate as the heat of the Thar region increases the capacity to hold moisture, so there is no rainfall. (i) 24.2oC (ii) 112.9 cm (iii) It is in the interior because the annual range temperature is high as 24.2 C/ the rain is only 112.9 cm, while a place on the coast would have a much heavier rainfall. (Any one) Question 4 (a) Mention two differences between Alluvial Soil and Black Cotton Soil. [2] (b) Name an area in India in which each of the following processes take place: [2] (c) (d) (i) Sheet erosion (ii) Gully erosion What is soil conservation? State a method of soil conservation in the: (i) Arid and Semi-Arid region. (ii) river valleys prone to flood. Name the soil which: [3] [3] (i) is good for cultivation of sugarcane. (ii) is acidic in nature. (iii) occurs exsitu. 37 Comments of Examiners (a) Most candidates wrote the differences between Alluvial Soil and Black Cotton Soil correctly. (b) Naming an area of sheet erosion and gully erosion was misinterpreted by some candidates who instead of an area, named States. (c) (i)-(ii)Most candidates answered the first part correctly. However, methods of soil conservation were not answered correctly by most of the candidates. (d) (i)Most candidates could name the soil good for cultivation of sugarcane. (ii)The soil which is acidic in nature was named correctly by most candidates. (iii)A few candidates were unable to understand the meaning of ex-situ and wrote incorrect answers. Suggestions for teachers Teach students to write the differences in a tabular form. It must be made clear to students that location is not considered as a characteristic. The concepts of area, state and region should be explained and doubts should be cleared. Formation and factors behind gullies, rivers should be clearly explained with examples. Guide students to write answers that are precise and to the point, along with keywords. Teach conservation methods in detail. Correct use of terminology must be stressed upon. Terms in-situ/ex-situ associated with weathering/ soil formation must be explained thoroughly. MARKING SCHEME Question 4 (a) (b) (c) Alluvial Soil Black Soil Transported Soil Residual soil Exsitu Insitu Less moisture retention More moisture retention Lighter in colour Dark in colour Sandy / coarse in texture Clayey / fine grain Rich in humus Deficient in humus (Any two) (i) Sheet erosion flood plains of Brahmaputra, Ganga, Kosi, Damodar, Nilgiris. (ii) Gully erosion Chambal valley Soil conservation is an effort made by man to prevent soil erosion and to retain its fertility. 38 A method of soil conservation: (d) (i) Planting of shelter belts / afforestation / re-afforestation (ii) Construction of dams and barrages (i) Good for sugarcane alluvial / black cotton soil. (ii) Acidic soil laterite soil (iii) Alluvial soil Question 5 (a) How do trees in the Tropical desert forests adapt themselves to the dry climate? [2] (b) Name the tree as per its characteristics given below: [2] (i) The wood is hard and suitable for ship building. (ii) The stilt roots are underwater during high tide. (c) Explain why the forest cover in India is shrinking? [3] (d) Name the natural vegetation found in the following regions: [3] (i) The western slopes of the Western Ghats. (ii) The Nilgiris. (iii) Western Rajasthan. Comments of Examiners (a) Most candidates answered the question correctly. (b) (i)Most candidates answered this part question correctly. (ii)Many candidates failed to understand that Mangrove is a type of vegetation and not the name of a tree. (c) Most candidates answered correctly the reason for shrinkage of forest cover in India. (d) Many candidates named the natural vegetation found in in the regions asked for in the subparts of this question correctly. 39 Suggestions for teachers Guide students to read and understand the question carefully before making an attempt to answer them. Explain the characteristic features of the vegetation, different trees, uses and regions. Give more emphasis on explanation/reasoning type of questions which is an essential part of the learning process. A thorough revision of topics is required. MARKING SCHEME Question 5 (a) Trees in the tropical desert forests adapt themselves as they have long roots, small leaves, hard thorns or sharp spines / xerophytic in nature. (Any two) (b) (i) Teak (ii) Sundari / Hintal / Gorjan (c) Increased demand for forest products Deforestation Urban sprawl/industrialization Overgrazing by the cattle Faulty agricultural practices eg. Jhuming (Any (d) three) Western slopes of Western Ghats tropical evergreen forests / rain forests. (i) (ii) Nilgiris mountain forests. (iii) W Rajasthan desert and semi desert / thorn and scrub. Question 6 (a) Give a reason for the significance of irrigation in: (i) [2] Punjab. (ii) Rajasthan. (b) Name a state where: (i) [2] Tube wells are common. (ii) Tank irrigation is popular. (c) Give one Geographical reason for each of the following: (i) [3] Sprinkler irrigation is practised in arid and semi-arid regions. (ii) A tube well should be installed in a fertile and productive region. (iii) Canal irrigation is more suitable in the Northern Plains. (d) Study the diagram below and answer the questions that follow: 40 [3] (i) Name the activity shown in the diagram. (ii) Give two objectives of the activity named in (d) (i). Comments of Examiners (a) The significance of irrigation in Punjab and Rajasthan was not understood by many candidates. They explained the process instead of giving the correct reason. (b) Many candidates answered both sub-parts of this question correctly. However, a few mentioned that tank irrigation is popular in North India. (c) Most candidates wrote geographical reasons for the sub-parts of this question correctly. However, tube wells being installed in fertile and productive region was not written correctly by some candidates. (d) Most candidates wrote water harvesting instead of rainwater harvesting in sub-part (i). 41 Suggestions for teachers Emphasis must be given to application based reasoning questions. Class tests on reasoning questions should be given regularly to improve the overall performance of students. Comparative study of different methods of irrigation, their advantages and disadvantages must be done. Modern methods of rainwater harvesting, mostly in Urban areas should be explained properly. Explain the importance of traditional and modern means of irrigation. Drip and Sprinkler method should be explained using images. Recharge of groundwater table should be given importance. MARKING SCHEME Question 6 (a) (i) Punjab Rainfall is uncertain and varies from year to year and place to place / seasonal / water needed for Rabi crops (winter). The region is rich in agriculture. (ii) Rajasthan West Rajasthan receives less than 25 cm rainfall. (b) (i) Uttar Pradesh / Bihar / Punjab / Haryana / Rajasthan / West Bengal (Any one) (iii) Tamil Nadu / Andhra Pradesh / Karnataka (Any one) (c) (i) Sprinkler irrigation water is supplied through pipes there is no loss of water by evaporation. Therefore, minimum wastage. (ii) A tube well must be installed in a productive region so that the cost of construction and operation of the tube well may be recovered from increased farm production / it is less expensive / can be installed in the farming area / occupies less space / free from pollution. (iii) Perennial rivers in the Northern plains supply water / plain surface for easy drainage / soft earth-easy to construct canals (d) (i) Rainwater harvesting / ground water recharge (ii) Objectives of rainwater harvesting: To meet the increasing demand for water To reduce surface runoff To avoid flooding of roads To raise the groundwater level To improve the quality of ground water/reduce ground water pollution To reduce soil erosion To supplement household requirements of water during the hot summers (Any two) 42 Question 7 (a) Give the names of four important types of iron ore found in India. [2] (b) Name the following: [2] (c) (d) (i) An offshore oil field in the Gulf of Cambay. (ii) An oil refinery in Bihar. (i) Name the state that produces the largest amount of limestone. (ii) State two uses of limestone. State an important industrial use of: (i) Manganese (ii) Coal [3] [3] (iii) Aluminium Comments of Examiners (a) Most candidates named correctly the four important types of iron ore found in India. (b) The offshore oil field in the Gulf of Cambay and the oil refinery in Bihar were named correctly by most of the candidates. (c) Majority of the candidates wrote the name of the state that produces the largest amount of limestone and its two uses correctly. (d) Most candidate wrote an important industrial use of each (i) Manganese (ii) Coal and (iii) Aluminium correctly. . 43 Suggestions for teachers Highlight the importance of minerals and transact the content by giving oral and written tests. Advise students to make tables to facilitate their learning. Oil fields should be taught with an indication of their location. Topics must be taught according to the scope of syllabus. MARKING SCHEME Question 7 (a) (b) (c) Four types of Iron ore mined in India: (i) Magnetite (ii) Hematite (iii) Limonite (iv) Siderite (i) Aliabet island close to Bhavnagar in the Gulf of Cambay. (ii) Barauni (i) Madhya Pradesh / Rajasthan / Gujarat / Andhra Pradesh / Tamil Nadu (ii) Limestone is used as raw material in fertilizer plants / chemicals / iron and steel / cement / glass industry. (d) Industrial use of (i) Manganese raw material for making steel / paints / glass. (Any one) (ii) Coal main source of power generation / generate thermal electricity / fuel / used in iron and steel industries, chemical industries, cement industry, railway industry. (Any one) (iii) Aluminum raw material for manufacture of aircrafts / automobile / electronic goods / utensils. (Any one) Question 8 (a) What is Mixed farming? Mention any one benefit of Mixed farming. [2] (b) Give the Geographical requirements for the cultivation of Sugarcane. [2] (c) Explain the following terms and name the crop with which each is associated: (i) Retting (ii) Ratooning (iii) Ginning [3] (d) Give geographical reasons for the following: (i) Regular pruning is essential for tea bushes. (ii) Coffee beans are roasted. (iii) Millets are known as dry crops. [3] 44 Comments of Examiners (a) Many candidates did not explain mixed farming properly which reflected a lack of understanding of the topic. (b) Most of the candidates gave geographical requirements for the cultivation of Sugarcane correctly. (c) Most candidates were unable to explain the terms correctly and failed to mention the crop associated with each of the terms. (d) (i) Most candidates answered correctly. (ii)Most candidates mentioned about the moisture content instead of the aroma, flavour, taste, etc. (iii)Only a few candidates answered correctly. Suggestions for teachers Train students to learn the important geographical terms and associated activities related to them. Lay stress on learning the correct range of temperature and rainfall requirement of crops. Guide students to read the question carefully. Tell them that if two things are asked in one question, answer should be written separately for each. Give more practice in reasoning type questions. MARKING SCHEME Question 8 (a) Mixed farming cultivation of crops and livestock rearing on the same farm. One benefit cattle and poultry do not need extra expenditure; they thrive on farm waste / Livestock provides substitute income when crops are not ready. (Any one) (b) Geographical requirement for Sugarcane cultivation: 20 degrees to 30 degrees Celsius temperature 100 to 200 cm rainfall Alluvial or Black soil (well drained) (c) (i) Retting It is a microbiological process in which the jute bundles are submerged in soft, clean water for 2 3 weeks, this helps to loosen the outer bark and helps in removal of the fibre from the stalk. (ii) Ratooning It is a shoot from the root-stock of sugarcane which has been cut leaving the root intact in the soil. (iii) Ginning It is the process in which cotton fibre is separated from the seed / raw material. (d) (i) It helps in growing new shoots bearing soft leaves in plenty / facilitates plucking. (ii) Roasting gives coffee its taste, colour and flavor. (iii) Millets can withstand high temperatures and drought / it is a hardy crop / can grow in areas of scanty rainfall / in adverse climatic conditions. 45 Question 9 (a) Differentiate between Mineral-based Industry and Agro-based industry giving one [2] example for each. (b) Though Uttar Pradesh has the largest number of sugar mills yet Maharashtra is the [2] largest producer of sugar. Give any two reasons to justify the statement. (c) Give the geographic term for each of the following: [3] (i) Non-mulberry silk produced in Madhya Pradesh. (ii) Rejected cane after crushing. (iii) The rearing of silk worms to obtain silk. (d) With reference to the cotton textile industry answer the following questions: [3] (i) Give two reasons why Mumbai is an important cotton textile industry. (ii) Mention two more important centres of cotton textile industry in India. Comments of Examiners (a) Most candidates differentiated between mineralbased industry and agro-based industry correctly citing appropriate examples for each. (b) Majority of candidates misinterpreted the question and emphasized on UP having the largest number of sugar mills, and explained about UP and not about Maharashtra. (c) Most candidates answered the sub-parts(i), (ii) and (iii) correctly. (d) (i)Most candidates answered the question correctly. (ii)Most candidates wrote incorrect answers, as they wrote on states instead of important centres. 46 Suggestions for teachers Show the location of states using map and explain the geographical conditions. Teach difference based questions with the help of a tabular presentation. Prepare charts for teaching of key terms and associated activities. Advise students to read the topic thoroughly. A thorough revision can help in improving their performance levels. MARKING SCHEME Question 9 (a) Mineral based industries use raw materials obtained from mines / e.g. iron and steel / cement / shipbuilding. Agro based industries use raw materials obtained from agriculture / e.g. sugar / cotton / jute. (b) Maharashtra is the largest producer of sugar the geographical conditions in the south are more suitable (temperature 20-30 degree Celsius, rain 100-200 cm, no frost, black lava soil). Large holdings are well planned. Longer crushing season. Mills are near the plantation (no loss of sucrose and cost of production is low). Mills better managed in the cooperative sector. The sugar lobby is responsible for large capital investment; hence farmers are interested in growing sugarcane. (Any two) (c) (d) (i) Tussar (ii) Bagasse (iii) Sericulture With reference to cotton textile industry: (i) Easy availability of raw material from the Black Soil region of Maharashtra. Humid climate. Cheap hydroelectric power. Mumbai has international port import / export facility. Existence of ready market. Skilled and unskilled labour from surrounding areas. Well connected with hinterland by roads and railways. Abundant supply of soft water for dyeing and bleaching. Banking facilities available. (Any two) (ii) Ahmedabad / Surat / Bhavnagar / Kanpur / Coimbatore / Madurai / Salem / Modinagar / Etawah / Moradabad / Saharanpur. (Any two) 47 Question 10 (a) The Iron and Steel industry constitutes the backbone of modern industrial economy. [2] Give two reasons to justify the statement. (b) (i) Name an Iron and Steel Industry set up in Orissa with the help of a famous German firm. [2] (ii) From where does the industry named in b (i) get its iron ore and manganese? (c) Name a manufacturing centre for each of the following industries: [3] (i) Aircraft (ii) HMT (iii) Railway coaches (d) Name two products each of the following industries: [3] (i) petrochemical industry. (ii) heavy engineering industry. (iii) electronic industry. Comments of Examiners Suggestions for teachers (a) Some candidates were unable to comprehend the term backbone and hence, wrote reasons that were vague in nature. (b) (i)A few candidates were unable to identify the Rourkela Steel Plant. (ii)Most candidates answered incorrectly. (i) & (ii) Most candidates answered these subparts of the question correctly. (iii)Some candidates committed errors in identifying the manufacturers of railway coaches, engines and locomotives and hence, wrote incorrect answers. (c) (i)A few candidates made mistakes in naming products based on the petrochemical industry. (ii)Some candidates attempted the question correctly. (iii)Most candidates answered correctly. 48 Characteristic features of each integrated steel plant should be taught with location, state and collaborators if any. Locational factors for each steel plant should include names of mines supplying raw materials. Train students to make a table of important industries and their centres followed by a thorough revision in class. The difference between coaches, engines and locomotives should be distinctly taught. Explain the basic features and products produced by industries specified in the syllabus. MARKING SCHEME Question 10 (a) (b) (c) (d) Iron and steel industry: Supplies necessary machinery for production of other goods Railway tracks, engines, ships and motors are made of iron and steel Used in constructing bridges Making armaments Water pipes and sewage covers Infrastructural necessities in airports and seaports Other capital goods Supports agriculture, fertilizer and cement industry (Any two) (i) Rourkela Steel Plant (ii) Iron ore Bonaigarh, Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar, Noamundi, Sundergarh Manganese Noamundi / Keonjhar. (i) Aircraft Bengaluru / Nasik / Korapat / Hyderabad / Lucknow / Kanpur. (ii) H.M.T. Bengaluru / Hyderabad / Srinagar / Ajmer / Ranchi / Secunderabad. (iii) Railway coaches Chennai / Kapurthala in Punjab. (i) Plastics / insecticides / Synthetic fibre / Synthetic rubber / PVC / Polythene (ii) Ships / Aircrafts / Automobiles. (iii) Computers / Television Sets / Audio systems Question 11 (a) Mention two reasons why more people use railways rather than airways. [2] (b) Why is inland waterways declining in its importance? Give two reasons for your [2] answer. (c) (d) What do you mean by the following: (i) Sewage. (ii) Eutrophication. (iii) Recycling. [3] Methane is an air pollutant that causes Green House effect. Name three sources of this [3] gas. 49 Comments of Examiners Suggestions for teachers (a) Most candidates could give reasons for why railways Discuss different means of transport, are used by more people than the airways. their advantages and disadvantages with (b) Most candidates were unable to comprehend the students. question and wrote incorrect and vague answers. Wastes, their types and methods of their (c) (i)Many candidates wrote generalised meaning of safe disposal should be explained to the students thoroughly. sewage. Practise the terms/ definitions regularly. (ii)Most candidates explained Eutrophication Thorough revision of important topics / correctly. units in class helps in improving (iii)Most candidates answered correctly except for a performance. few who appeared to be unaware of the term Recycling . (d) Most candidates did not write three sources of methane correctly. MARKING SCHEME Question 11 (a) (b) (c) More people travel by railways than by airways because: Airways are expensive. Airways do not allow passengers to carry much luggage. Not all places are connected by airways. (Any two) Indian waterways is declining its importance because: It provides access to limited areas. It is much slower than roadways and railways. (i) Sewage: the waste water discharge from domestic premises like residences, institutions, and commercial establishments is known as sewage. (ii) Eutrophication: Type of water pollution / it is process of depletion of oxygen from the water bodies either through natural or due to human activities / This process takes place due to introduction of nutrients and chemicals through discharge of domestic sewage, waste from industries and from agricultural fields. (iii) Recycling or reuse involves the collection of used and discarded materials and processing these materials and making them into new products. 50 (d) Methane comes from Cattle shed Swamps Coal mines Decomposition of vegetable matter (Any three) GENERAL COMMENTS Topics found difficult / confusing by candidates Suggestions for candidates Topographical map: Bank of Sukli Nadi, Social activity of people living in Marol, Vertical black line close to Easting 10, Main source of water supply to Bhatana. Winds deflecting due to Coriolis effect. Name an area in India in which each of the following processes take place: Sheet erosion, gully erosion. Mixed farming and its benefits. Sources of Methane, terminology associated with waste management. Marking on the outline map of India: Coal field Jharia, Tropic of cancer, Coastal plain. Agricultural benefits derived from: The westerly depressions in Punjab, the Kalbaisakhi in Assam. Significance of irrigation in Punjab and Rajasthan. Off shore oil fields. Study the chapter thoroughly. Practice miscellaneous exercise on map work. Avoid selective study. Optimize the reading time to select the questions to be answered. Neat work and legible handwriting is a must. Differences should be written in a tabular form. Maps should be fastened and attached properly inside the answer booklet. Solve the previous years board papers and discuss all doubts with your teacher. Prepare tables and charts on topics such as soil, minerals and crops. 51

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