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# GATE 2015 : Aerospace Engineering

29 pages, 55 questions, 13 questions with responses, 14 total responses
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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE AE Q. 1 Q. 25 carry one mark each. Q.1 u2 2 u The partial differential equation + = 0 is t x (A) linear and first order (C) non-linear and first order Q.2 (B) linear and second order (D) non-linear and second order a x+b y =e The system of equations for the variables x and y c x+d y= f has a unique solution only if (A) a d b c 0 Q.3 (B) a c b d 0 A linear mass-spring-dashpot system is over-damped. In free vibration, this system undergoes (A) non-oscillatory motion (C) oscillatory and periodic motion Q.4 (D) a c b d (C) a + c b + d (B) random motion (D) oscillatory and non-periodic motion A cantilever with thin-walled channel cross section is subjected to a lateral force at its shear center. The cantilever undergoes (A) bending without twisting (C) neither bending nor twisting (B) bending and twisting (D) twisting without bending = 25 Q.5 The two non-zero principal stresses at a point in a thin plate are . The maximum shear stress (in ) at this point is _____. 2 = 25 Q.6 Consider the density and altitude at the base of an isothermal layer in the standard atmosphere to be 1 and 1 , respectively. The density variation with altitude ( versus h) in that layer is governed by ( : specific gas constant, : temperature, : acceleration due to gravity at sea level) = (A) ( 1) ( 1) = (D) 1 Q.7 ( 1 ) ( 1 and ) 1 = (C) = (B) 1 1 1 For constant free stream velocity and density, a change in lift for a large aspect ratio straight wing, with thin cambered airfoil section at small angles of attack, leads to (A) a shift of the aerodynamic center and no shift of the center of pressure (B) a shift of the center of pressure and no shift of the aerodynamic center (C) shift of both the aerodynamic center and the center of pressure (D) no shift either of the aerodynamic center or of the center of pressure Q.8 Which one of the following modes of a stable aircraft has non-oscillatory response characteristics? (A) Short period (C) Dutch roll Q.9 As a candidate for a vertical tail, which one of the following airfoil sections is appropriate? (A) NACA 0012 AE (B) Phugoid (D) Spiral (B) NACA 2312 (C) NACA 23012 (D) Clarke Y profile 1/8

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GATE 2015 Q.10 AEROSPACE AE The primary purpose of a trailing edge flap is to (A) avoid flow separation (C) reduce wave drag Q.11 (B) increase Cl , max (D) reduce induced drag Which one of the following aero engines has the highest propulsive efficiency? (A) Turbojet engine without afterburner (C) Turbofan engine Q.12 (B) Turbojet engine with afterburner (D) Ramjet engine The stoichiometric fuel-to-air ratio in an aircraft engine combustor varies with the compressor pressure ratio as follows: (A) increases linearly (C) is independent Q.13 Q.14 (B) decreases linearly (D) increases nonlinearly A rocket engine produces a total impulse of 112 . in a burn time period of 3.5 minutes with a propellant mass flow rate of 0.25 / . The effective exhaust velocity (in / ) of gas ejecting from the engine is _____. The function y = x 3 x has (A) no inflection point (C) two inflection points (B) one inflection point (D) three inflection points Q.15 A 0.5 mass is suspended vertically from a point fixed on the Earth by a spring having a stiffness of 5 / . The static displacement (in ) of the mass is _____. Q.16 A slender structure is subjected to four different loading cases (I, II, III and IV) as shown below (Figures not to scale). Which pair of cases results in identical stress distribution at section S S located far away from both ends? [I] [II] [III] [IV] (A) I and II AE (B) II and III (C) III and IV (D) IV and I 2/8

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GATE 2015 Q.17 AEROSPACE AE An aircraft in level and unaccelerated flight with a velocity of 6 9 10 5 . If the aircraft weighs 1.5 10 = 300 / requires a power of , the lift-to-drag ratio is _____. Q.18 The percentage change in the lift-off distance for a 20 % increase in aircraft weight is _____. Q.19 Consider a monoplane wing and a biplane wing with identical airfoil sections, wingspans and incidence angles in identical conditions in a wind tunnel. As compared to the monoplane, the biplane experiences (A) a higher lift and a higher drag (C) a lower lift and a lower drag Q.20 (B) a higher lift and a lower drag (D) a lower lift and a higher drag A statically stable trimmed aircraft experiences a gust and the angle of attack reduces momentarily. As a result, the center of pressure of the aircraft (A) shifts forward (C) does not shift (B) shifts rearward (D) coincides with the neutral point Q.21 Consider a wing of elliptic planform, with its aspect ratio AR . Its lift-curve slope, Q.22 An ideal gas in a reservoir has a specific stagnation enthalpy of h0 . The gas is isentropically dC L = _____. d expanded to a new specific stagnation enthalpy of and steady. Then Q.23 h0 and velocity u. The flow is one-dimensional 2 u2 = _____. h0 The Reynolds number, Re is defined as U L where L is the length scale for a flow, U is its reference velocity and is the coefficient of kinematic viscosity. In the laminar boundary layer approximation, comparison of the dimensions of the convection term u 2u leads to the following relation between the boundary layer thickness and Re : x 2 (A) Q.24 Re (B) 1 Re (C) Re (D) 1 Re Isentropic efficiencies of an aircraft engine operating at typical subsonic cruise conditions with the following components - intake, compressor, turbine and nozzle - are denoted by i , c , t and n , respectively. Which one of the following is correct? (A) i (C) AE u and the viscous term x < c < t < n c < t < i < n (B) (D) t < i < c < n c < i < t < n 3/8

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GATE 2015 Q.25 AEROSPACE AE A rocket nozzle is designed to produce maximum thrust at an altitude, level. The nozzle operates in = 8 from the sea (A) under-expanded condition for > 8 (B) under-expanded condition for < 8 (C) sonic exit condition for > 8 (D) unchoked condition for < 8 Q. 26 Q. 55 carry two marks each. Q.26 d2y dy 2 + y = 0 , if the values of the integration constants are identical and 2 dx dx one of the initial conditions is specified as y (0) = 1 , the other initial condition y (0) = _____. In the solution of Q.27 For > 0, the general solution of the differential equation dy = 1 2 y asymptotically dx approaches _______. Q.28 For a parabola defined by y = ax 2 + bx + c, a 0, the coordinates ( x, y ) of the extremum are b b 2 4ac (A) + , 0 2a 2a b b 2 + 4ac (C) 2a , 4a Q.29 b b 2 + 4ac , 2a 2a (B) (D) (0, c ) 60 50 50 40 ) on a surface normal to the x-axis at P is _____. The 2-D stress state at a point P in the x-y coordinate system is of the tangential stress (in . The magnitude Q.30 A cube made of a linear elastic isotropic material is subjected to a uniform hydrostatic pressure of 100 /mm2. Under this load, the volume of the cube shrinks by 0.05%. The Young's modulus of the material, = 300 . The Poisson's ratio of the material is _____. Q.31 A massless cantilever beam PQ has a solid square cross section (10 10 ). This beam is subjected to a load through a rigid massless link at the point Q, as shown below (figure not to scale). If the Young's modulus of the material = 200 , the deflection (in ) at point Q is _____. AE 4/8

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GATE 2015 Q.32 AEROSPACE AE An aircraft, with a wing loading = 500 / Considering the free stream density is _____. 2 = 10 and , is gliding at = 0.9 / 3 = 0.69. , the equilibrium glide speed (in / ) Q.33 For a thin flat plate at 2 degrees angle of attack, the pitching moment coefficient about the trailing edge is _____. Q.34 A satellite is to be transferred from its geostationary orbit to a circular polar orbit of the same radius through a single impulse out-of-plane maneuver. The magnitude of the change in velocity required is __________ times the magnitude of the escape velocity. Q.35 A planetary probe is launched at a speed of 200 / and at a distance of 71,400 from the 28 mass center of its nearest planet of mass 1.9 10 . The universal gravitational constant, = 6.67 10 11 (A) elliptic Q.36 3 2 . The ensuing path of the probe would be (B) hyperbolic (C) parabolic (D) circular u( y ) 3 y 1 y constant pressure is given by = . The freestream velocity U = 10 m / s and U 2 2 kg the dynamic viscosity of the fluid = 1.8 10 5 . At a streamwise station where the boundary ms The velocity profile of an incompressible laminar boundary layer over a flat plate developing under 3 layer thickness = 5 mm , the wall shear stress is _________ 10 3 Pa . Q.37 The Pitot tube of an aircraft registers a pressure p0 = 54051 N / m 2 . The static pressure, density and the ratio of specific heats of the freestream are p = 45565 N / m 2 , = 0.6417 kg / m3 and = 1.4, respectively. The indicated airspeed (in m / s ) is (A) 157.6 Q.38 (B) 162.6 (C) 172.0 (D) 182.3 Consider a NACA 0012 aerofoil of chord c in a freestream with velocity V at a non-zero positive angle of attack . The average time-of-flight for a particle to move from the leading edge to the trailing edge on the suction and pressure sides are t1 and t 2 , respectively. Thin aerofoil theory yields the velocity perturbation to the freestream as V (1 + cos ) on the suction side and as sin (1 + cos ) on the pressure side, where corresponds to the chordwise position, sin c x = (1 cos ) . Then t2 t1 is 2 V (A) AE 8 c V ( 4 2 2 ) (B) 0 (C) 4 c V 4 2 2 ( ) (D) 8 c V 4 2 2 ( ) 5/8

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GATE 2015 Q.39 AEROSPACE AE Air enters an aircraft engine at a velocity of 180 / with a flow rate of 94 / . The engine combustor requires 9.2 / of air to burn 1 / of fuel. The velocity of gas exiting from the engine is 640 / . The momentum thrust (in ) developed by the engine is (A) 43241 (B) 45594 (C) 47940 (D) 49779 Q.40 A solid rocket motor is designed with a cylindrical end-burning propellant grain of length 1 and diameter 32 . The density of the propellant grain is 1750 / 3 . The specific impulse of the motor is 190 and the acceleration due to gravity is 9.8 / 2 . If the propellant burns for a period of 150 , then the thrust (in ) produced by the rocket motor is ________. Q.41 A liquid propellant rocket has the following component masses: = 180 kg = 470 kg = 1170 kg = 150 kg = 20 kg Mass of payload Mass of fuel Mass of oxidizer Mass of structures Mass of guidance systems The effective exhaust velocity is 3136 / . The velocity increment (in burnout, while operating in outer space, is ________. Q.42 / ) of the rocket at If all the eigenvalues of a matrix are real and equal, then (A) the matrix is diagonalizable (B) its eigenvectors are not necessarily linearly independent (C) its eigenvectors are linearly independent (D) its determinant is necessarily zero Q.43 (4 x 2 The value of the integral 1 3 ) + 3 x 2 + 2 x + 1 dx evaluated numerically using Simpson's rule with one step is (A) 26.5 Q.44 AE (B) 26 (C) 25.5 (D) 25.3 The following data is for a single degree of freedom system with viscous damping: mass, = 10 ; spring stiffness, = 2.25 / ; / . damping coefficient, = 0.0125 The ratio of any two successive amplitudes is _____. 6/8

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GATE 2015 Q.45 AEROSPACE AE Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following assertion [a] and reason [r]: Assertion [a]: Aircraft directional static stability can be improved by moving the vertical tail rearward. Reason [r]: Moving the vertical tail rearward increases the moment arm from the tail aerodynamic center to the aircraft center of gravity. (A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a] (B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a] (C) Both [a] and [r] are false (D) [a] is true and [r] is false Q.46 Consider a 2-D blunt body in an incompressible fluid stream. The flow is irrotational and can be modeled as a linear combination of a uniform flow and a line source (Rankine half body) as shown below. Let s be the distance of the line source from the front stagnation point. Let d be the upstream distance from the stagnation point to the streamwise location (labeled below as P) where the oncoming stream reaches 90% of its undisturbed velocity. Then d / s = _____. Rankine half body uniform flow P d Q.47 s line source Following are the operational parameters of an axial compressor stage: Air mass flow rate Static temperature of air at the rotor inlet Velocity of air at the rotor inlet (zero whirl velocity) Work done on the compressor rotor Isentropic efficiency of the compressor stage Ratio of specific heats Specific heat at constant pressure = 24 / = 278 = 140 / = 734 = 0.86 = 1.4 = 1.005 / The stagnation pressure ratio across the axial compressor stage is ________. Q.48 AE The thin rectangular tube shown below is made of a material with shear modulus, = 80 . The shear flow is calculated based on the mid-thickness dimensions. If the free end is allowed to twist no more than 0.0727 , then the maximum torque (in ) which the tube can be subjected to at its free end is _______. 7/8

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GATE 2015 AEROSPACE AE Q.49 A 200 long simply-supported column has a 5 10 rectangular cross section. The Young's modulus of the material, = 200 . Assuming a factor of safety of 2.5 corresponding to the buckling load, the maximum load (in ) the column can support in compression is _______. Q.50 For a level flight at cruise altitude, = 0.018 with drag coefficient at zero lift, For a 30 climb at the same altitude and speed, = _____ 10 3 . Q.51 An aircraft is flying with inertial ground and wind speeds of v = (0, 5, 10) angle (in degrees) is (A) 0 ,0 v = (100, 5, 5) = 0.015. / and / , respectively, as expressed in the body frame. The corresponding sideslip (B) 5.65 (C) 8.49 (D) 9.54 Q.52 The elliptical area swept by a satellite is 5.6 109 2 in one full orbit. Its angular speed is observed to be 0.00125 / when it is at a distance of 7,200 from the center of mass of its primary. Its orbital period (in Earth days) is _______. Q.53 For a normal shock, the relation between the upstream Mach number ( M 1 ) and the downstream Mach number ( M 2 ) is given by M 2 = 2 ( 1)M 12 + 2 . 2 M 1 + 1 2 For an ideal gas with = 1.4 , the asymptotic value of the downstream Mach number is _______. Q.54 A centrifugal air compressor is operating at the following conditions: Inlet stagnation temperature Inlet stagnation pressure Exit stagnation temperature Exit stagnation pressure = 288 K = 1.15 bar = 454 K = 4.8 bar heats, = 1.4 and specific heat at constant pressure, C p = 1.005 kJ / kgK ) is ______ kJ / kg. The energy loss due to non-isentropic compression per unit mass of flowing air (ratio of specific Q.55 AE Hot gas (ratio of specific heats, = 1.33 ) at a temperature of 1450 K enters into an axial turbine and expands isentropically. Assume that the kinetic energy of the gas across the turbine is negligible. If the ratio of inlet to outlet pressures of the turbine is 9.5 , then the temperature (in ) of gas exiting the turbine is _______. 8/8

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Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering Notations : Question Paper Name: Number of Questions: Total Marks: AE:AEROSPACE ENGINEERING 1st Feb shift2 65 100.0 Wrong answer for MCQ will result in negative marks, (-1/3) for 1 mark Questions and (-2/3) for 2 marks Questions. Number of Questions: Section Marks: 10 15.0 Q.1 to Q.5 carry 1 mark each & Q.6 to Q.10 carry 2 marks each. Question Number : 1 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 2 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 3 Question Type : MCQ

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Options : Question Number : 4 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 5 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 6 Question Type : MCQ

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Options : Question Number : 7 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 8 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 280

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Question Number : 9 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 10 Question Type : MCQ Options : Number of Questions: Section Marks: 55 85.0 Q.11 to Q.35 carry 1 mark each & Q.36 to Q.65 carry 2 marks each. Question Number : 11 Question Type : MCQ Options :

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Question Number : 12 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 13 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 14 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 15 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer : 24.99 to 25.01 Question Number : 16 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 17 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 18 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 19 Question Type : MCQ

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Options : Question Number : 20 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 21 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 22 Question Type : MCQ Options :

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Question Number : 23 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer: 2131.1 to 2139.1 Question Number : 24 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 25 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 0.97 to 1.01 Question Number : 26 Question Type : MCQ

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Options : Question Number : 27 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 4.9 to 5.1 Question Number : 28 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 43.9 to 44.1

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Question Number : 29 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 30 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 31 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 6.27 to 6.29 Question Number : 32 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer : 0.99 to 1.01 Question Number : 33 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 34 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 35 Question Type : MCQ Options :

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Question Number : 36 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 1.9 to 2.1 Question Number : 37 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 0.49 to 0.51 Question Number : 38 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 39 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer : 49.99 to 50.01 Question Number : 40 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 0.24 to 0.26 Question Number : 41 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 5.45 to 5.60 Question Number : 42 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer : 39.5 to 40.5 Question Number : 43 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 0.15 to 0.18 Question Number : 44 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 0.99 to 1.01 Question Number : 45 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 46 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer : 53.9 to 54.1 Question Number : 47 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 48 Question Type : MCQ Options :

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Question Number : 49 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 50 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 1742 to 1752 Question Number : 51 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer: 5.42 to 5.48 Question Number : 52 Question Type : MCQ

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Options : Question Number : 53 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 54 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 1.27 to 1.32 Question Number : 55 Question Type : MCQ

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Options : Question Number : 56 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer: 8.9 to 9.1 Question Number : 57 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer : 1.33 to 1.40 Question Number : 58 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 990 to 1020 Question Number : 59 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer : 2046 to 2075 Question Number : 60 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer: 17.2 to 17.3 Question Number : 61 Question Type : MCQ Options : Question Number : 62 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 1.9 to 2.1 Question Number : 63 Question Type : NAT

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Correct Answer: 0.37 to 0.39 Question Number : 64 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer: 20.5 to 21.3 Question Number : 65 Question Type : NAT Correct Answer : 824.0 to 832.1

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