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ICSE Class X Prelims 2026 : English Paper 1 (English Language) (Pawar Public School (PPS), Hadapsar, Pune)

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PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2025-26) SUBJECT- ENGLISH LANGUAGE Std: X Max. Marks :80 Date: 05 /12/2025 Duration: 2 h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers __________________________________________________________________________ Attempt all five questions. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. You are advised to spend no more than 30 minutes in answering Question 1 and 20 minutes in answering Question 2. ___________________________________________________________________________ Question 1 (Do not spend more than 30 minutes on this question.) Write a composition (300 - 350 words) on any one of the following: [20] (i) Write a short story ending with the statement- and surprisingly, I ended up solving my sister s problem. (ii) Recently, you had the opportunity to portray a character strikingly different from your own personality. Describe the nature of the role, explain in what ways it contrasted with you, elaborate on your preparation and performance and reflect on the lessons you gained from the experience emphasising how it led you to discover a new version of yourself. (iii) You were bored of your room. Describe how you changed the look of your room specially the study table to increase your concentration and perform well in your forthcoming examination. (iv) Etiquette and social behaviour should be an essential and compulsory part of the school curriculum. Express your views either for or against the above statement. (v) Study the picture given below. Write a story or a description or an account of what it suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of the picture or you may take suggestions from it; however, there must be a clear connection between the picture and your composition. ___________________________________________________________________________ This paper consists of 7 printed pages Question 2 (Do not spend more than 20 minutes on this question.) Select any one of the following: [10] (i) Your exams are around the corner. Write a letter to your friend, explaining how you are coping with stress , what steps are you taking to study effectively. (ii) Write a letter to the Principal requesting to have a Career Guidance Program in the school. Mention the reasons and benefits for the same. Question 3 (a) Write a notice to be put up on the school notice board for an Inter- School Logo Designing Competition. [5] (b)Write an e-mail to a renowned logo designer inviting her to judge the competition. [5] Question 4 Read the following passage and answer the questions that followMrs Jallatt was known for hosting very exclusive parties for young people. She preferred to keep the gatherings small because, as she believed, it comes cheaper that way, since you can ask fewer people. As Rollo rode in his carriage towards her house, he tried to guess the attendance. There ll be about ten girls, he mused, and probably four boys unless the Wrotsleys bring their cousin, which Heaven forbid. That would make Jack and me against three of them. Rollo and the Wrotsley brothers had disliked each other since nursery days. They only met during holidays, and every meeting turned tragic for whichever side had fewer supporters. Rollo had counted on a loyal friend to join him and balance the numbers, but as soon as he arrived, he overheard a girl apologising for her brother s sudden absence. Moments later, he realised with growing dread that the Wrotsleys had indeed brought their cousin. One against three, Rollo sighed. It promised to be as amusing as a visit to the dentist. Still, he instructed his driver to return early and walked in with the resigned smile of someone marching towards the guillotine. After the greetings, Mrs Jallatt said, Now, you children would like to play games, I suppose? No one contradicted her. I know a good game, said the elder Wrotsley. The boys leave the room and think of a word. Then we come back, and the girls must guess it. Rollo knew the game. He might have suggested it himself if he had been in the majority. The boys went to the library and discussed their choice. When they returned, however, the Wrotsley cousin blurted out, The word is camel! Are you mad! screamed the girls. We ve got to guess the word. Go back and think of another! __________________________________________________________________________ Page 2 of 7 Rollo tried to repair the damage. Pretend it s dromedary, he whispered. But Dolores Sneep declared triumphantly, I heard them say dromedary ! I heard them! Back to the library the boys went. After rejecting several words, they finally decided on quagga . When they returned, the girls chorused, Come and sit over here, and the game resumed until supper was announced. Mrs Jallatt never served extra delicacies, believing it wise to take what one wanted while it was still there. That evening she had provided sixteen peaches for fourteen children. Unfortunately, the two Wrotsleys and their cousin slipped an extra peach each into their pockets. This left Dolores and the plump, kind Agnes Blake to share a single peach. I suppose we had better halve it, said Dolores. But Agnes, who was always guided first by appetite and then by good nature, quickly ate the peach whole, murmuring that dividing it would make the juice go to waste. After refreshments, Mrs Jallatt looked worried. The professional conjurer I hired has failed me at the last moment. Can any of you recite? Everyone panicked. Dolores was known to recite Locksley Hall at the slightest encouragement. Rollo saw the danger and quickly stepped in. I ve seen conjuring chaps take coins and cards out of people, he announced. Well, I m going to take something interesting out of some of you. Fruit, for instance. Not mice! shrieked a girl. Well, fruit, then, he said. The audience approved. Rollo walked confidently to the Wrotsley trio, plunged his hand into their pockets, and dramatically produced three peaches. The room buzzed in surprise no applause, but a satisfying silence that told Rollo his trick had succeeded. Mrs Jallatt asked hopefully, Do you know any more tricks? I might have changed the three peaches into something else, Rollo hinted, but Agnes has already eaten one. The younger Wrotsley then said proudly, I know a game. The boys think of a character in history, then come back and act him out. The girls guess. I m afraid I ll have to leave now, Rollo said quickly. Your carriage won t be here for another twenty minutes, replied Mrs Jallatt. Thinking fast, Rollo whispered to the Wrotsleys, loud enough for Agnes to hear, We ll go and finish those chocolates we left in the library. ___________________________________________________________________________ Page 3 of 7 The girls should take their turn in going out! cried Agnes and ran towards the library with three excited girls following. Their noisy search was still going on when Rollo heard the blessed sound of wheels crunching on wet gravel. Rising, he said, It s been a most enjoyable evening. Thank you, Mrs Jallatt, and walked out to meet his carriage with perfect timing. - The Strategist by Saki (i) For each word given below choose the correct meaning (as used in the passage) from the options provided[2] 1. gravel (a) Fine, powdery soil (b) Small stones or pebbles (c) Wet mud (d)Sharp pieces of metal 2. shrieked (a) murmured (b) cried out (c) mumbled (d) chatted (ii) Which word in the passage is an antonym of comforted ? (a) scared (b)affrighted (c) applause (d)panicked (iii) Answer the following questions (a) What was the game suggested by younger Wotsley? (b)Why did Mrs Jallatt prefer to host only small parties? (c) Why was Rollo unhappy when he realised the Wrotsleys had brought their cousin? (d)How did Rollo save the situation when the conjurer failed to arrive? (e) How did Agnes Blake end up eating the entire peach? [1] [1] [2] [2] [2] [2] (iv) Describe how Rollo managed to save the situation during the party and how he finally escaped from the last game suggested by the Wrotsleys. Answer in not more than fifty words. [8] __________________________________________________________________________ Page 4 of 7 Question 5 (i) Fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of the word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage but write in correct serial order the word or phrase appropriate to the blank space. [4] Example: arrived The scientists finally (0)___ (arrive) at the remote island. The research team (1)____(wait) for them for two weeks and had almost given up hope. The leader reminded them that if the government (2) ____ (approve) the project earlier, they (3)____ (not lose) so much time in preparation. While the equipment (4) _____(unload), one of the assistants suddenly realised that the weather forecasts they (5)_____ (rely) on were already outdated. The leader remarked that they (6) ____(have) to change their schedule if the storm intensified. Nobody knew how long the expedition actually (7) ________ (last), but everyone agreed that they (8)________ (must complete) at least the first phase before supplies ran out. (ii) Fill in the blanks with the appropriate word- [4] (a) The manager called ____an explanation from the receptionist. (b)The teacher reminded the students to refrain ___talking during the assembly. (c) We must be careful about whom we are friends ____. (d)Despite repeated reminders, he did not follow ____on the task assigned to him. (e) Unable to cope with the pressure, he finally broke ____ and admitted his mistake. (f) The committee will have to look ____ the proposal carefully before granting approval. (g)Despite the hostile environment, she managed to keep ___her principles. (h)The engineer needed to figure ____the problem quickly to avoid any delays in the production line. (iii)Join the following sentences without using and, but, soChoose the correct option - [4] 1. They looked around the workroom. They remembered how they had spent their days. (a) Looking around the workroom, they remembered how they had spent their days. (b) They looked around the workroom, they remembered how they had spent their days. (c) They looked around the workroom because they remembered how they had spent their days. (d) They remembered how they had spent their days while they looked around the workroom. Page 5 of 7 2. Let us hope your father will agree. If so, we will go out for a picnic. (a) Provided when your father agree we will go out for picnic. (b) Provided your father agrees, we will go out for picnic. (c) Provided for your father to agree, we will go out for a picnic. (d) Provided upon your father agreeing, we will go out for picnic. 3. He whispered something. It was not audible. (a) He whispered something which was inaudible. (b) He whispered something such that it was inaudible. (c) He whispered something since it was inaudible. (d) He whispered something that was audible. 4. He is being kind, That is his pretence. (a) His kindness is his pretence. (b)He is pretending to be kind. (c) That he is kind, is just a pretence. (d)His being kind is pretence. (iii) Choose the most appropriate option to rewrite the following according to the instructions given in the bracket. Do not change the meaning. [8] 1. If she were to fly to London tomorrow, she must have finished packing by now. (Begin: Were she .) (a) Were she to fly to London tomorrow, she must have finished packing by now. (b)Were she flying to London tomorrow, she would have finished packing by now. (c) Were she to have flown to London tomorrow, she must finish packing by now. (d)Were she flying to London tomorrow, she must be finishing packing by now. 2. I was too thrilled to express it in words. (Use: so .that) (a) (b) (c) (d) I was so thrilled that I cannot express it in words. I am so thrilled that I can express it in words. I am so thrilled that I could not express it in words. I was so thrilled that I could not express it in words. 3. Rahul said, ' We have been friends for two years.' (Begin: Rahul said that ..) (a) Rahul said that we had been friends for two years. (b) Rahul said that they have been friends for two years. (c) Rahul said that they had been friends for two years. (d) Rahul said that they were friends since two years. ___________________________________________________________________________ Page 6 of 7 4. The plan is obviously going to fail. (Use: obvious) (a) It is obvious that the plan is going to fail. (b) The plan is obvious to fail. (c) It is the plan that obvious is going to fail. (d) The plan going to fail is obvious to everyone. 5. What a blessing it is to have such wonderful parents! (Begin: It is ) (a) (b) (c) (d) It is blessing to have such wonderful parents. It is indeed a blessing to have such wonderful parents. It is a blessing having such wonderful parents to us. It is a blessing to have had such wonderful parents. 6. He had a scarred face and a weapon in his hands. (Begin: Besides ) (a) (b) (c) (d) Besides a heavily scarred face, he had a weapon in his hands. Besides having a scarred face , he had a weapon in his hands. Besides having a heavily scarred face, he has a weapon in his hands. Besides a heavily scarred face, he is having a weapon in his hands. 7. Keep the medicines away or a child may mishandle it.( Use: lest) (a) (b) (c) (d) If you keep the medicines away lest a child may mishandle it. Keep the medicines away lest a child may mishandle it. Keep the medicines away lest a child may not handle it. Keep the medicines away lest a child should mishandle it. 8. This noise disturbs me. (Begin with: I ...) (a) I am disturbed by this noise. (b) I am disturbed with this noise. (c) I am not disturbed by this noise. (d) I am not disturbed with this noise. ___________________________________________________________________________ Page 7 of 7 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATON-I (2025-26) SUBJECT LITERATURE IN ENGLISH Std: X Max Marks: 80 Date: 28/11/2025 Duration: 2h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. The paper has four Sections. Section A is compulsory All questions in Section A must be answered. You must attempt one question from each of the Sections B, C and D and one other question from any Section of your choice. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions from this Section.) Question 1 Read the following questions and choose the most appropriate response from the choices given below (Please do not copy the question - simply write out in correct serial order the appropriate word or phrase.) [16] (i) Which of the following does NOT illustrate irony? (a) Cassius calls Caesar a god while recounting his weakness. (b) Antony calls Brutus honourable while undermining his words. (c) A plebeian proposes crowning Brutus as king. (d) Antony likens the conspirators to apes and hounds. (ii) What best describes the temperament of the crowd in this scene? (a) Astute (b) Insightful (c) Compassionate (d) Unreasoning (iii) Brutus endures personal loss without outward display of sorrow, maintaining calm dignity in public affairs. Which philosophical outlook does this behaviour most closely reflect? (a) The pursuit of detached rationality in all circumstances (b) The rejection of moral restraint for personal pleasure (c) The belief that emotional indulgence reveals inner weakness (d) The acceptance of worldly suffering as a path to spiritual release (iv) In Act IV, Scene 3, what is the dramatic purpose of Caesar s ghost appearing before Brutus? (a) It embodies Brutus s inner guilt and prefigures his downfall. (b) It represents Caesar s vengeance manifested through the supernatural. (c) It serves as a warning for Brutus to mend his rift with Cassius. (d) It foretells Lucilius s impending betrayal. This paper consists of 6 printed sides (v) When Titinius says, Mistrust of my success hath done this deed, he refers to __________. (a) Cassius s suicide caused by misunderstanding (b) Cassius s act against his own judgement (c) Cassius s belief in the Epicurean doctrine (d) Cassius s farewell to Brutus (vi) What emotion is reflected in Cassius s tone when he calls Octavius a peevish schoolboy and Antony a masker and a reveller ? (a) Fear (b) Contempt (c) Anxiety (d) Remorse (vii) Choose the option that lists the sequence of events in the correct order: 1. Martin felt nervous when he got back to the building after school. 2. She did nothing. 3. He looked at her for a moment. 4. He thought about her all day. (a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 1, 4 (c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2 (viii) Select the option that correctly reflects the relationship between Statements I and II. Statement I: Mead s house is brightly lit, symbolising warmth and individuality. Statement II: The rest of the city s houses are dark and silent, representing isolation and conformity. (a) Statements I and II are both true. (b) Statements I and II are both false. (c) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false, and Statement II is true. (ix) How does education influence Adjoa s journey of self-discovery in The Girl Who Can? (a) It produces minimal change in her outlook or circumstances. (b) It stifles her development and limits her confidence. (c) It empowers her to realise her abilities and identity. (d) It estranges her from her family and traditional values. 2 (x) Which of the following statements about Alphonse Daudet s The Last Lesson is incorrect? (a) Franz was reluctant to attend school, fearing he had not mastered his participles. (b) M. Hamel revealed that this would be their final lesson in French. (c) The villagers assembled to honour M. Hamel and express their deep respect. (d) M. Hamel intended to depart for Paris to continue teaching French. (xi) Which of the following best captures the irony in With the Photographer ? (a) The narrator seeks a pleasant likeness but receives a distorted image. (b) The photographer claims to enhance beauty yet mars it completely. (c) A simple sitting turns into an exasperating ordeal. (d) The artist s quest for perfection destroys the subject s truth. (xii) How did the tiny mite respond upon encountering the freshly written manuscript? (a) By sipping and sniffing it (b) By paying no attention to it (c) By treading across its surface (d) By taking flight and leaving it behind (xiii) The predominant atmosphere in Sukumar Ray s The Power of Music can best be described as: (a) whimsically absurd, revealing humour through exaggeration (b) sombre and reflective, tinged with quiet melancholy (c) tranquil and lyrical, evoking a sense of inner harmony (d) eerie and suspenseful, filled with supernatural overtones (xiv) In the journey through grief, individuals often experience stages such as shock, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. Which of these stages is most powerfully conveyed in the lines below? And when great souls die, after a period peace blooms, (a) Shock (b) Anger (c) Depression (d) Acceptance (xv) Which of the following lines contains the same literary device as the one in gave blows like beams ? (a) Life is a highway (b) I wandered lonely as a cloud. (c) the fair breeze blew, the white foam flew (d) The alarm clock screamed at me. 3 (xvi) The central idea of Longfellow s poem The Haunted Houses is that __________. (a) ghosts live in every abandoned house. (b) the spirits of the dead remain connected to the homes they once inhabited. (c) people should be afraid of entering old, deserted houses. (d) haunted houses exist only in imagination. SECTION B (Answer one or more questions from this Section.) DRAMA (Julius Caesar by William Shakespeare) Question 2 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: Messala: Believe not so. Cassius: I but believe it partly, For I am fresh of spirit and resolved To meet all perils very constantly. (i) What day does Cassius mention and why does he compare himself to Pompey? (ii) How does Shakespeare use omens to reflect Cassius s inner conflict? (iii) How does Brutus Stoic philosophy influence his stance on suicide and his response to the prospect of losing the battle? (iv) Earlier in the scene, what does Cassius accuse Antony of? What does he say about the words spoken by Cassius? How does Brutus amplify the accusation? (v) By the end of the first fight, in what condition does Brutus find Cassius? Whom does he hold responsible? What course of action does he resolve to take regarding Cassius and why? Question 3 Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow: Clitus: What ill request did Brutus make to thee? Dardanius: To kill him, Clitus. Look, he meditates. Clitus: Now is that noble vessel full of grief, That it runs over even at his eyes. Brutus: Come hither, good Volumnius. List a word. Volumnius: What says my lord? 4 [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] (i) Where is this scene taking place? What had Brutus asked Dardanius and Volumnius to do? What reason does he cite for such a request? [3] (ii) How does Brutus address his men and soldiers in the end? [3] (iii) How does Strato demonstrate loyalty to Brutus? What is he instructed by Brutus? [3] (iv) How does Antony s eulogy establish Brutus moral superiority over the other conspirators? [3] (v) How does Octavius plan to treat Brutus body, and what is his reason for doing so? Identify two contemporary examples that parallel Brutus choice to die rather than be captured, reflecting honour and moral courage. [4] SECTION C (Answer one or more questions from this Section.) PROSE - SHORT STORIES (Treasure Chest A Collection of Poems and Short Stories) Question 4 Read the following extract from Ray Bradbury s short story, The Pedestrian and answer the questions that follow: He turned back on a side street, circling around toward his home. He was within a block of his destination when the lone car turned a corner quite suddenly and flashed a fierce white cone of light upon him. He stood entranced, not unlike a night moth, stunned by the illumination, and then drawn toward it. (i) Which car is being referred to? What is the significance of this car? [3] (ii) Where did Mead live? What was his profession and why was it not productive? [3] (iii) How does the conversation between Mead and the car sound? Why is it so? [3] (iv) Why was Leonard Mead outdoors? How does the car s response reflect the society s stance on individuality? [3] (v) If Mead lived in today s world, how would our society react to him? What would this suggest about our own society? [4] Question 5 Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: Poor man! It was in honour of this last lesson that he had put on his fine Sunday-clothes, and now I understood why the old men of the village were sitting there in the back of the room. (i) Who is referred to as Poor man ? Describe his Sunday clothes. Why was he wearing them? [3] (ii) Name the people sitting at the back of the room. Why were they at school? [3] (iii) The little boy Franz had forebodings before the teacher actually made the shocking announcement. What was the shocking announcement? Mention any two incidents that occur in the story highlighting the apprehensions of Franz. [3] (iv) How does Mr Hamel later describe the French language? In describing the language, which feeling is he trying to instill among the people present in the class and why? [3] (v) What did Mr. Hamel write on the board? What did it symbolise? What opinion can we form about Mr. Hamel after reading the story? [4] SECTION D (Answer one or more questions from this Section.) POETRY (Treasure Chest A collection of Poems and Short Stories) Question 6 Read the following extract from Robert Frost s poem, A Considerable Speck and answer the questions that follow: I have a mind myself and recognize Mind when I meet with it in any guise No one can know how glad I am to find On any sheet the least display of mind. (i) What does the speaker claim to possess? What does the word guise mean in this context? What does it suggest? [3] (ii) What does a period of ink mean? How does the speck s behaviour show its will to live? [3] (iii) How does Frost s response to the speck reveal his reverence for life? [3] (iv) What do you think is the tone of the poem A Considerable Speck ? The poet uses precise imagery to heighten the reader s perception. Identify one instance of each: [3] (a) visual image (b) tactile detail (v) If the poem were written in a modern, technological context what might the speck be and why? [4] Question 7 Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow: Again we cry, 'We're going to die, oh won't you stop your singing? ' But Bhisma's soared beyond our reach, howe'er we plead and grumble; The welkin weeps to hear his screech, and mighty mansions tumble. (i) Who is being referred to as we in the above lines? Why are we pleading Bhisma to stop singing? How far does his song spread geographically? (ii) What do you understand by the term welkin ? How does it react and what is the impact? (iii) How does the poet portray Bhisma s singing as both earnest and disastrous? Give examples from the poem to justify your answer. (iv) Who is a sagacious fellow in the poem? Identify two lines that best capture the absurd exaggeration in the poem. (v) How might the story change if Bhisma actually listened to the pleas? 6 [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] Std. : X Date : 03/12/2025 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION - I (2025-2026) SUBJECT- HINDI(II LANGUAGE) Max. Marks : 80 Duration : 3 h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. ______________________________________________________________________________ Section A is compulsory-All questions in Section A must be answered. Attempt any four questions from Section B, answering at least one question each from the two books you have studied and any two questions from the same books you have studied. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. Question 1 SECTION - A (40 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this Section) Write a short composition in Hindi of approximately 250 words on any one the following topics :- [15] :(i) , , , - ? (ii) (iii) - ? (iv) (v) : , , This Paper consists of 6 printed pages. Turn over Question 2 Write a letter in Hindi in approximately 120 words on any one of the topics given below: 120 :- [7] (i) , (ii) Question 3 Read the passage given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow, using your own words as far as possible: I : , , - , , , - ? - " , " ? - " , - , " , , , , ? , - " " -" " - , - , (i) - ? [2] (ii) ? [2] (iii) ? [2] (iv) ? [2] (v) ? [2] Question 4 Answer the following according to the instructions given: : (i) ' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) (ii) ' : [1] (a) - (b) - (c) - (d) - (iii) ' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) / 3 Turn over (iv) ' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) (v)' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) (vi) ' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) (vii) : [1] ( ?) (a) (b) (c) (d) (viii) : - ( ) (a) (b) (c) (d) SECTION- B (40 Marks) Questions from only two textbooks are to be answered. Attempt four Questions from this section. You must answer at least one question from each of the two books you have studied and any two other questions from the same books that you have chosen. [1] Question 5 : SAHITYA SAGAR : SHORT STORIES Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " [ ] (i) - ? [2] (ii) ?[2] (iii) - ? [3] (iv) ? [3] Question 6 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " " (i) , ? [ - ] [2] (ii) ? [2] (iii) ? ? [3] (iv) , ? [3] Question 7 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " ! " [ ] (i) ? [2] (ii) - ? [2] (iii) ? [3] (iv) [3] 5 Turn over Question 8 EKANKI SANCHAY Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " , , !" (i) ? [ - ] [2] (ii) ? (iii) ? (iv) [2] [3] [3] Question 9 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " ? ... ... ... ... " (i) [ - ] [2] (ii) ? [2] (iii) [3] (iv) ? [3] Question 10 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " ! ! " [ - ] (i) ? ? (ii) ? [2] [2] (iii) ? ?[3] (iv) ? [3] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-I (2025-2026) SUBJECT- MARATHI Std.X Max. Marks - 80 Date:03/12/2025 Duration 3 h Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. This paper is divided into two Sections. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (40Marks) Attempt all questions Question 1 Write a short composition in Marathi of approximately 200-250 words on any one of the following topics: . [15] i. . - . . . ii. . . iii. . , . , !..... . iv. . v. . ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------This paper consists of 6 printed pages. Page 1 Question 2 Write a letter in Marathi of approximately 120 words on any one of the topics given below . [7] i. . . . . ii. . . Question 3 Read the passage given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow, using your own words as far as possible. . . , " ........." , " , .' , . . , " ? ." , " , . . " , " , , ." . . . . . . . , . , . . . , . . , . . . . ? ; . . . ; . . . , " ." , " , , ?" , " ( ) . ." , " , ?" , " . . ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Page 2 ' . ." !! :i. ? [2] ii. ? [2] iii. ? [2] iv. ? [2] v. . . [2] . Question 4 Answer the following according to the instructions given: . i. ? [1] ................ . a. b. c. d. ii. , , ? [1] a. , , b. , , c. , , d. , , iii. , ? [1] a. , b. , c. , d. , -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Page 3 iv) , , ? [1] a. , , b. , , c. , , d. , , v. . ? [1] a. . b. . c. . d. . vi. ? [1] a. b. c. d. . vii. ? [1] a. b. c. d. viii. . ? [1] a. b. c. d. -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Page 4 Section B (40 Marks) Attempt four questions from this section. You must answer at least one question from each of the two books you have Studied and any two other questions. Question 5 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . ! ? ? . . : i) ? [2] ii) ? ? [2] iii) ? ? [3] iv) - . [3] Question 6 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . . . . : i. ? ? [2] ii. ? [2] iii. ? ? [3] iv. ? . [3] Question 7 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . . . . : i. ? ii. ? [2] [2] iii. ? ? [3] iv. ? [3] --------------------------------------------------------------------Page 5 Question 8 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . : i. ? ii. . [2] [3] iii. - ? [2] iv. ? [3] Question 9 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . ; . : i. ? ii. ? iii. . iv. ? [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 10 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . : i. ? [2] ii. . [2] iii. ? iv. ? [3] [3] ___________________________________________________________________________________ Page 6 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION - I (2025-2026) SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS Std: X Date: 08/12/2025 Max Marks: 80 Duration: 3hrs SECTION A (Attempt all questions from this section) Question 1 [15] Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the questions, write the correct answers only.) (i) Which of the following is NOT a geometric progression? (a) , 1, 3, 9 (b) , , , (c) 2 , 4 , 8 ,16 (d) 2, 0, 4 ,0 ,8, 0 (ii) If P(A) denotes the probability of an event A then : (a) P(A) 0 (b) P(A) 0 (c) 0 P(A) 1 (d) P(A) 0 (iii) For an intra state sale , the CGST paid by a dealer to the central government is 120. If the marked price is 2000 the rate of GST is (a) 6% (b) 10% (c) 12% (d) 16.67% (iv) Given x + 2 + 3 and x is a prime number. The solution set for x is (a) (b) { } (c) { } } (d) { This Paper consists of 6 printed pages. Turn over (v) If [ (a) (b) (c) (d) ]=[ ], then which of the following relation is correct? ab = xy a+y=b+x a+b=x+y a+x=b+y (vi) Rahi had the option of investing in a company A , where 7% , 100 shares are available at 120 or in a company B , where 8% , 1000 shares are available at 1620 Assertion (A): Investment in Company A is better than Company B. Reason (R): The rate of income in Company A is better than in Company B. (a) Both A and R are true , and R is the correct explanation. (b) Both A and R are true , and R is not the correct explanation (c) A is false , but R is true. (d) Both A and R are false (vii) Pranita intended to open a Recurring Deposit account of 1000 per month for one year in a Bank, paying a 5%per annum. The bank reduced the rate to 4% per annum. How much must Pranita deposit monthly for one year so that her interest remains the same? (a) 12,325 (b) 1,250 (c) 1,200 (d) 1,000 (viii) If p , q and r are in continued proportion , then: (a) p : q = p : r (b) q : r = p2 : q2 (c) p: q2 = r : p2 (d) p : r = p2 : q2 (ix) The ratio of diameter to height of a Borasil cylindrical glass is 3:5 . If the actual diameter of the glass is 6 cm, then the curved surface area of the glass is: (a) 120 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 18 (x) Which of the following lines cut the positive x- axis and y axis at equal distances from the origin? (a) 3x + 3y = 6 (b) 5x + 10y = 10 (c) x + y = 1 (d) 10 x + 5y = 5 (xi) cosec2 A + sec2A is equal to : (a) tan2A + cot2A (b) cot A + tan A (c) (cot A + tan A)2 (d) 1 2 of 6 (xii) Which of the following equation have irrational roots? (a) 3x2 + 2x + 2 = 0 (b) 2x2 + 3x 2 = 0 (c) 4x2 7x + 3 =0 (d) 5x2 10x + 1 = 0 (xiii) The scale factor of a picture and a actual height of Monica is 20 cm : 1.6 m. If her height in the picture is 18 cm , then her actual height is: (a) 14.4 m (b) 2.25 m (c) 1.78 m (d)1.44 m (xiv) A polynomial in x is x3 + 5x2 kx 24. Which of the following is a factor of the given polynomial so that the value of k is 2? (a) ( x + 2) (b) ( x 3) (c) ( x + 4) (d) ( x 4) (xv) In the given figure , O is the centre of the circle O and AOC = 1300 , then ABC is equal to: 0 (a) 115 (b)1200 A C (c) 1350 (d) 1500 B Question 2 (i) Polynomial x4 + 7x3 + 7x2 + px + q is exactly divisible by x2 + 7x +12 , then find [4] the value of p and q. (ii) A line Segment joining P (2, 3) and Q ( 0, 1) is cut by x-axis at the point R. A line [4] AB cuts the y-axis at T ( 0, 6) and is perpendicular to PQ at S. Find the : (a) equation of line PQ . (b) equation of line AB . (c) coordinates of points Rand S. (iii) In the given figure O is the centre of the circle and AB is a diameter. AC = BD and AOC =720 .Calculate: (a) ABC (b) BAD (c) ABD Question 3 A O [4] B B C D (i) The 4th , 6th and the last term of geometric progression are 10 ,40 and 640 respectively. If the common ratio is positive , find the first term , common ratio and the number of terms of the series (ii) A hemispherical and a conical hole is scooped out of a solid wooden cylinder. Find the volume of the remaining solid where the measurements are as follows: The height of solid cylinder is 7 cm, radius of each of hemisphere, cone and cylinder is 3 cm Height of the cone is 3 cm. Give your answer 3 of 6 [4] [4] correct to the nearest whole number. . (iii)Study the graph and answer each of the following. (a) Write the coordinates of the points A , B and C (b) Reflect A and B on the x-axis and name them as E and D, respectively. (c) Reflect B through the origin and name it F. Write down the coordinates of F. (d) Reflect B and C on the y-axis and name them as H and G , respectively. (e) Join points A, B, C,D,E,F,G,H and A in order and name the closed figure formed. [5] SECTION B (Attempt any four questions from this Section) Question 4 (i) A man bought 200 shares each of face value 10 at 12 per share. At the end of the [3] year, the company from he bought the shares declares a dividend of 15% , calculate: (a) the amount of money invested by the man. (b) the amount of dividend he received. . (ii) Solve the following inequation and represent the solution on the real number line: [3] +x +2 (iii) Prove that : 8 + 2x , x I = sin A cos A. [4] Question 5 P (i) In PQR , S is a point on the side QR such that PSR = QPR. Given QP = 8 cm , PR = 6cm and SR = 3 cm. (a) Prove PQR (b) Find the length of QR and PS. (c) Find area of PQR : area of SPR [3] SPR Q S (ii) Yutika opened a recurring deposit account for 20 months . The rate of interest is 9% per annum and Yutika receives 441 as interest at the time of maturity. Find the amount she deposited each month. 4 of 6 R [3] (iii) The following table gives the duration of movies in minutes. Using Step- deviation method, find the mean duration of the movies. Duration ( in minutes) No. of movies 100-110 5 110-120 10 120-130 17 130-140 8 140-150 6 [4] 150-160 4 Question 6 (i) Find the coordinates of the centroid P of the ABC , whose vertices are A( 1 ,3) , B( 3 , and C ( 0 ,0). Hence find the equation of line passing through P and parallel to AB. (ii) In the given figure, AB ,BD , and AD are the chords A and CD is a tangent to the circle at D . B If AB = 7 cm and BC = 9cm . (a) Prove that : ACD DCB (b) find the length of CD. D (iii) The following bill shows the GST rates and the marked price of an articles: Sr.No 1 2 Item TV set Laptop Marked Price 38,000 55,000 Discount 10% 5% [3] [3] C [4] Rate of GST 18% 18% Find the total amount to be paid including GST for the above bill. Question 7 (i) The angle of depression of two ships A and B on opposite sides of a light house of [5] 0 0 height 100 m are respectively 42 and 54 . The line joining the two ships passes through the foot of the lighthouse. (a) Find the distance between the two ships A and B (b) Give your final answer correct to the nearest whole number. (ii) 40 students enter for a game of shot-put competition. The distance thrown ( in meters) is recorded below: Distance in m No of students 12 -13 3 13 -14 9 14- 15 15- 16 12 9 16 -17 4 17 -18 2 [5] 18 -19 1 Use the graph paper to draw an ogive for the above distribution. Find : (a) the median ( b) upper quartile . (c) number of students who cover a distance which is above 16 m. Question 8 (i) A contestant chooses to use the ask the expert helpline to contact one of three experts Sarika, Shruti, or Sejal for assistance during a quiz competition . There are five possible answers to the research she poses to the one of the experts. Calculate the probability that : (a) Sarika is selected to assist (b) Sarika fails to provide the correct solution. 5 of 6 [3] (ii) Use properties of proportion to find the value of x when : [3] = (iii) A manufacturing company prepares spherical ball bearings , each of the radius 7 mm and mass 4 g. These ball bearings are packed into boxes. Each box can have maximum 2156 cm3 of ball bearings. Find the : (a) maximum number of ball bearings that each box can have. (b) mass of each box of ball bearings in kg . [4] Question 9 (i) The table given below shows the ages of members of a society Age (in years) Number of members of society 25-35 05 35-45 32 45-55 69 55-65 80 [3] 65 -75 61 75 -85 13 Use graph sheet for the question. Take 2cm = 10 years along one axis and 2 cm = 10 members along the other axis. (a) Draw a histogram representing the above distribution. (b) Estimate the modal age of the members. (ii) If the 6th term of A.P is equal to four times its first term and the sum of first six terms is 75, find the first term and the common difference. [3] (iii) Using ruler and compass construct a ABC in which AB = 6 cm , BAC = 1200 and AC = 5 cm. Construct a circle passing through A,B and C . Measure and write down the radius of the circle. [4] Question 10 (i) A teacher who is attempting to arrange students for mass drill in the form of a solid [3] square found that 24 students were left. When he increased the size of the square by 1 student , he found that he was short of 25 students .Find the number of students. (ii) If A = [ ] , find A2 . If A2 = p A , then find the value of p . (iii) Use ruler and compasses for the following question taking a scale of 10 m = 1 cm. A park in a city is bounded by straight fences AB, BC, CD and DA. Given that AB = 50 m ,BC = 63 m, ABC = 750 . D is a point equidistant from the fences AB and BC. If BAD = 90 0, construct the outline of the park ABCD. Also locate a point P on the line BD for the flag post which is equidistant from the corners of the park A and B. 6 of 6 [3] [4] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2025-26) SUBJECT PHYSICS Std.: X Date: 01/12/2025 Max. Marks: 80 Duration: 2 h Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. ______________________________________________________________________________ Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (40 marks) (Attempt all questions from this Section.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) (i) A moment of couple tends to rotate a body in clockwise direction. The moment of the couple is taken as: (a) positive (b) negative (c) maximum (d) zero (ii) A certain machine is very efficient. What does this mean? (a) It produces a large amount of power. (b) It uses very little energy. (c) It wastes very little energy. (d) It works very quickly. Prelim - 2025 This paper consists of 14 printed pages. [15] (iii) Which of the following statements is CORRECT? The frequency of a stretched string is: (a) directly proportional to its length but inversely proportional to the tension of the wire. (b) inversely proportional to its length but directly proportional to the thickness of the wire. (c) directly proportional to the square root of its tension but inversely proportional to the length of the wire. (d) inversely proportional to its thickness but directly proportional to the length of the wire. (iv) A student does some work by pulling a suitcase along a corridor. She now pulls a second suitcase along the corridor. Which row indicates that the student is now doing twice as much work? (v) The diagram shows a narrow beam of white light dispersed by a glass prism to produce a visible spectrum. Which statement describes what happens to the frequency and wavelength of light in observing from P to Q across the spectrum? (a) The frequency and wavelength both increase (b) The frequency and wavelength both decrease (c) The frequency increases and the wavelength decreases (d) The frequency decreases and the wavelength increases Prelim 2025 Page 2 of 14 (vi) The diagram shows a ray of light in glass incident on the surface between glass and air. What happens if the angle of incidence is made larger than the critical angle for glass? (a) The angle of refraction becomes equal to 90 (b) There is a refracted ray and a ray reflected inside the glass (c) There is only a refracted ray (d) There is only a reflected ray inside the glass (vii) A parallel beam of light is incident on a thin diverging lens. The focal length of the lens is FL, as shown in the diagram. Which ray diagram shows the beam after it has passed through the lens? Prelim - 2025 Page 3 of 14 (viii) Assertion (A): Distant mountains appear bluish when viewed from far away. Reason (R): Air molecules and fine dust particles between the observer and the mountains scatter shorter wavelengths of light more effectively, and the scattered blue light from the atmosphere reaches the observer s eyes. (a) (A) is true but (R) is false. (b) (A) is false but (R) is true. (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (ix) A candle flame is placed in front of a loudspeaker. The loudspeaker produces a sound wave that causes the air particles to vibrate. The vibrating air particles make the candle flame vibrate in the same direction as the air particles. Which row shows the direction of vibration of the candle flame and the nature of the sound waves? (x) The diagram shows a four-terminal box connected to a battery and two ammeters. Prelim 2025 Page 4 of 14 The currents in the two ammeters are identical. Which circuit, within the box, gives this result? (xi) According to the old convention, the colour of the neutral wire is: (a) black (b) green (c) yellow (d) red (xii) Which transformer arrangement produces an output e.m.f. that is larger than the input e.m.f? (xiii) Which statement gives the thermal capacity of a solid body? (a) The energy needed to melt the body without a change in temperature (b) The energy per degree Celsius needed to raise the temperature of the body (c) The increase in the volume of the body when its temperature is raised by one degree Celsius (d) The total amount of internal energy in the body Prelim - 2025 Page 5 of 14 (xiv) Equal masses of two different liquids are heated using the same heater. The graph shows how the temperature of each liquid changes with time. What does the graph tell us about the liquids? (a) Liquid 1 has a higher melting point than liquid 2. (b) Liquid 1 has a higher boiling point than liquid 2. (c) Liquid 1 starts to melt sooner than liquid 2. (d) Liquid 1 starts to boil sooner than liquid 2. (xv) The diagram shows five atoms in a radioactive substance. The atoms each give out an particle. Atom 1 is the first to give out a particle. Atom 3 is the second to give out a particle. Which atom will give out the next particle? (a) Atom 2 (b) Atom 4 (c) Atom 5 (d) Impossible to tell Prelim 2025 Page 6 of 14 Question 2 (i) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket: [6] (i) A ___________ (Class II/Class III) lever is always a speed multiplier. (ii) When you connect a speaker to your phone via Bluetooth, you are using the _______ (radio wave, X rays) wave to establish the connection. (iii) SI unit of work is ____ (Nm/J). (iv) The safe limit of hearing is ______ (20,000 Hz/80 dB) (v) Two wires, one made of copper and the other made of steel, may have the same ______ (resistance/resistivity). (vi) Nuclear power plants use nuclear _______ (fusion/fission) to produce energy. (ii) Name the following: [2] (a) A pulley system without any mechanical advantage. (b) The parameter of a machine which does not diminish in magnitude with time and/or use. (iii) (a) Name the EM wave used in night vision glasses. [2] (b) Give one reason why the waves mentioned in (a) are used for the above purpose. Question 3 (i) The following figure shows how a converging lens forms the image of an object. [2] Determine the distance of the image from the lens. (ii) Assuming a house has the following devices, calculate the current rating of the fuse required: two bulbs, each rated 100 W, 230 V, one table fan, rated 50 W, Prelim - 2025 Page 7 of 14 [2] 230 V, an air conditioner rated, 1000W, 230 V and a refrigerator rated, 130 W, 230 V. (iii) Leonardo da Vinci proposed a flying machine that would work like a screw to [2] lift the pilot into the air. The screw is rotated by the pilot. The machine and the pilot together have a total mass of 120 kg. What useful output power must the pilot provide to move vertically upwards at a constant speed of 2.5 m/s? (g = 10 m/s2) (iv) The two metals A and B have their specific heat capacities in the ratio 2:3. If they [2] are supplied the same amount of heat, then: (a) which metal piece will show a greater rise in temperature if their masses are the same? (b) calculate the ratio in which their temperatures rise, if the mass ratio of metal A and metal B is 3:5. (v) A student uses this apparatus to investigate what happens to a current-carrying conductor in a magnetic field. The student connects the two parallel horizontal metal rails to the positive and negative terminals of a power supply. The metal rod AB rests across the rails and is free to move. (a) State your observation once the power supply is switched on. (b) State the reason for your observation in (a). Prelim 2025 Page 8 of 14 [2] (vi) (a) State the type of nuclear emission which has a relative charge of +2. [2] (b) State the type of nuclear emission which is a part of the electromagnetic spectrum. (vii) Service providers use special cables for wi-fi connections that use light signals [3] instead of electrical signals. This relies on a physical phenomenon that confines light within the fibres. (a) Name the optical phenomenon that allows light signals to remain confined within the fibre optic cables during transmission. (b) State the two main conditions necessary for this phenomenon to occur. SECTION B (40 Marks) (Attempt any four questions from this Section.) Question 4 (i) When you go to a photo studio, the photographer asks you to sit on a chair in [3] front of a white screen in the room. This is purposefully done so that you, as an object, should stand beyond the centre of curvature of the camera lens, but surely not at an infinite distance. Draw an appropriate ray diagram for this using three rays. (ii) A ray of light passes through two prisms as shown. State the phenomenon of light occurring at the following positions: (a) D (b) E (c) F Prelim - 2025 Page 9 of 14 [3] (iii) A student watches a demonstration of the total internal reflection of light in a [4] semicircular glass block. He takes notes, but some of them are incorrect. State which of his observations are incorrect. Sr. no. Observations 1. The angle of incidence is less than the angle of reflection. 2. Light changes speed when it is internally reflected. 3. The refractive index of glass is greater than the refractive index of air. 4. If i = 0, then the ray does not deviate. 5. Every ray entering the semicircular glass block is reflected by total internal reflection. 6. The phenomenon occurs only when light tries to leave the glass block, not when it enters the glass block from air. 7. The critical angle for orange light is less than that of green light. Question 5 (i) A scientist lowers a metallic ruler vertically into a transparent oil tank. The ruler [3] touches an object placed at the bottom of the tank and gets wet up to the 25 cm mark. If the refractive index of the glycerin is 1.25: (a) up to which mark will the ruler get wet if the scientist lowers it up to the image of the object? (b) how will this length in (a) change if another liquid of >1.25 is used? (ii) Calculate the total amount of heat energy required to melt 200 g of ice at 0 C to [3] water at 100 C. (Specific latent heat of ice = 3,36,000 J/kg, specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg C) (iii) Starting as a gas at 206 C, a 100 g sample of a substance is allowed to cool for 16 minutes. This process is represented by the cooling curve below. Prelim 2025 Page 10 of 14 [4] (a) What is the melting point of this substance? (b) At what time do the particles of this sample have the lowest average kinetic energy? (c) Determine the amount of heat energy released when the substance was cooling down in the liquid state. (specific heat capacity = 4.7 J/gK) Question 6 (i) A meter rule is pivoted at its mid-point. A weight of 4.0 N is suspended from the [3] rule at the 5 cm mark. The rule is held by a string at the 30 cm mark. The rule is in equilibrium. (a) Draw a diagram for this arrangement. (b) What is the upward force that the string exerts on the rule? (ii) For each of the following scenarios, state whether the work done by gravity is [3] positive, negative, or zero. (a) A person walks on a levelled road. (b) A person climbs a ladder. (c) A car in a neutral gear is coming down the slope. (iii) Two students are conducting experiments with identical 100 g simple pendulum bobs, each raising the bob 5 m above the mean position. The graph depicting the relationship between distance from the mean position and velocities is presented in the diagram. Prelim - 2025 Page 11 of 14 [4] (a) Demonstrate, using mathematical calculations, that the path followed by student 1 is devoid of friction. (b) Does the situation involving student 2 exhibit a breach of the law of conservation of energy? Justify your answer. (g = 10 m/s2) Question 7 (i) A block and tackle system of pulleys has 4 pulleys. It lifts a load of 100 kgf [3] through a distance of 4 m. If the work done against friction is 1000 J, find the: (a) work done by the effort (b) efficiency (g = 10 m/s2) (ii) Examine the graph depicting the transmitted (T) and reflected (R) waves from [3] submarines A and B, which are equipped with a device emitting ultrasonic sounds. Study the graph and answer the following. (Speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s) (a) Why is ultrasonic sound used in this device? (b) Which submarine is closer to the ship? Calculate the distance of the closest submarine. (iii) (a) Why is the first hill of a roller coaster the highest? (b) A 0.5 kg basketball falls vertically from a height of 5 m. If, during the fall, Prelim 2025 Page 12 of 14 [4] it loses 10% of the potential energy to friction and another 5% in sound and heat energy after striking the ground, to what height will it rebound? (g = 10 m/s2) Question 8 (i) In the circuit shown, the ammeter reads 2 A and the voltmeter reads 12V. [3] How much energy is transferred by the resistor in 10 seconds? What is the internal resistance of the battery? (ii) Purvi's friend Tim wants to connect a fuse to his oven. He wants to control the [3] oven from two different locations. Shown below is his circuit diagram. (a) Which of the two, A or B, should be a live wire? (b) In the event of an overload, will the fuse serve its purpose? (c) What is the meaning of the statement oven is rated 600W, 220 V ? (iii) The diagram shows six identical resistors connected in a circuit. In which segment (PQ, QR, PS or RS) of the circuit is the most power dissipated? Support your answer with necessary calculations/justification. Prelim - 2025 Page 13 of 14 [4] Question 9 (i) A bar magnet is held near a coil of wire. The coil is connected to a sensitive [3] voltmeter. The N-pole of the magnet is moved quickly towards the coil. The voltmeter shows a reading of +10 mV. The N-pole of the magnet is then moved slowly away from the same end of the coil. The reading on the voltmeter is observed. (a) When the N-pole is moved away slowly, will the magnitude of the e.m.f. be greater than, less than or equal to 10 mV? (b) Name the law that helped you deduce the answer to (a). (c) State the direction of the current at end A when the N-pole is moved away. (ii) Two circuits are set up as shown. The iron rods are placed close together and [3] can move. (a) What happens to the size of the gap (increases, decreases, stays the same) at X when switch S is closed? (b) Name the law that helped you deduce the answer to (a). (c) Name one advantage of electromagnets over bar magnets. (iii) (a) What are the advantages of nuclear fission over nuclear fusion? (b) Differentiate between chemical change and nuclear change. Prelim 2025 Page 14 of 14 [4] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2025-2026) SUBJECT CHEMISTRY Std.: X Max. Marks: 80 Date: 10/12/2025 Duration: 2 h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in the brackets [ ]. SECTION A (40 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this Section.) Question 1 [15] Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) (i) A student is given four covalent compounds labelled A, B, C and D. By examining their molecular formulas, the student counts the total number of covalent bonds in each molecule: Compound A contains oxygen and hydrogen atoms. Compound B contains one carbon atom bonded to four chlorine atoms. Compound C consists of two identical atoms of halogen bonded together. Compound D contains nitrogen bonded to three hydrogen atoms. Which of the following correctly lists the compounds in order of increasing number of covalent bonds per molecule? (ii) (a) C <A< D < B (b) A< C < D < B (c) C < D <A< B (d) B< D <A< C The highly deliquescent salt which, in aqueous solution, gives a reddish-brown precipitate with ammonium hydroxide solution is: (a) Iron (III) chloride (b) Iron (II) sulphate (c) Iron (II) chloride (d) Iron (III) sulphate This Paper consists of 14 printed pages [Turn over] (iii) 10 g of calcium carbonate (CaCO ) reacts completely with excess dilute hydrochloric acid. What volume of carbon dioxide gas is formed at standard temperature and pressure? [Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16] The balanced chemical equation is: CaCO + 2HCl (iv) (a) 2.22 dm (b) 2.42 dm (c) 2.24 dm (d) 2.82 dm CaCl + H O + CO Radha wanted to gift her friend a decorative statue that is hard, strong, corrosion-resistant and can be polished to a shine. She chose one made from an alloy. Based on these properties, which of the following metals is most likely the main constituent of the alloy? (v) (a) Iron (b) Zinc (c) Copper (d) Aluminium Which of the following chains of hydrocarbons undergoes two steps of reactions to become saturated? (a) (b) (c) (d) (vi) A farmer tests the pH of the soil used to grow wheat and finds it to be slightly acidic. For optimal wheat growth, slightly alkaline conditions are preferred. The farmer decides to use a fertilizer that will help increase the alkalinity of the soil. Page 2 of 14 Which ion should the fertilizer release to achieve the desired effect on soil pH? (vii) (a) Hydroxyl ion (b) Hydronium ion (c) Hydrogen ion (d) Both hydroxyl and hydrogen ions During a lab experiment, Meera electrolyses different aqueous solutions using inert electrodes. In one of the experiments, she observes that the gas released at the anode rekindles a glowing splint, confirming the presence of oxygen gas. She wants to repeat the experiment using an electrolyte that will not produce oxygen at the anode under similar conditions. Which electrolyte should Meera choose? (viii) (a) Molten sodium chloride (b) Diluted solution of sodium chloride (c) Diluted solution of copper(II) sulphate (d) Molten alumina with cryolite and fluorspar Given below are four different illustrations of preparing liquor ammonia drawn by students. Which of these is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) Page 3 of 14 [Turn over] (ix) During a chemistry experiment, Aarav observes that ethane reacts with chlorine gas only when exposed to UV light, forming chloromethane as one of the products. Based on this observation, what conclusion can Aarav draw about the type of reaction and how does it help identify ethane s class of hydrocarbons? (a) It is an addition reaction, showing that ethane is an unsaturated hydrocarbon. (b) It is a substitution reaction, indicating that ethane is a saturated hydrocarbon. (x) (c) It is a combustion reaction, which is common to all hydrocarbons. (d) It is a polymerization reaction, indicating ethane s unsaturation. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E show the following pH values when tested with a universal indicator: (a) Solution pH A 4 B 1 C 11 D 7 E 9 A strongly acidic, B weakly acidic, C weakly alkaline, D neutral, E strongly alkaline (b) A weakly acidic, B strongly acidic, C strongly alkaline, D neutral, E weakly alkaline (c) A neutral, B weakly acidic, C weakly alkaline, D strongly acidic, E strongly alkaline (d) A weakly acidic, B strongly acidic, C neutral, D weakly alkaline, E strongly alkaline (xi) Assertion (A): When baking soda is added to vinegar, a gas is evolved that turns limewater milky but has no effect on acidified potassium dichromate solution. Reason (R): The gas evolved is carbon dioxide, which is an acidic oxide and has a pungent odour. (a) A is true, but R is false. (b) A is false, but R is true. (c) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A. (d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A. Page 4 of 14 (xii) A chemistry teacher presents the following data about four different periodic properties to her class: Metallic character arranged as Li > Be > N > O Ionization potential arranged as Cl > F > Br > I Ionic radii arranged as O > F > Mg > Na Number of shells arranged as I > Br > Cl > F She asks the students to identify which of these arrangements is incorrect and to explain the reason. (a) The ionization potential arrangement is incorrect because fluorine has a lower ionization energy than chlorine due to greater electron repulsion in its smaller atomic orbitals (b) The metallic character arrangement is incorrect because metallic character decreases across a period. (c) The ionic radii arrangement is incorrect because ionic radii increase with increasing positive charge. (d) The number of shells arrangement is incorrect because the number of shells decreases down the group. (xiii) A student sets up an experiment to electroplate a bangle with silver using a sodium argentocyanide solution. The power supply is connected to two electrodes immersed in the solution: the bangle is connected to the positive electrode, and a silver strip is connected to the negative electrode. After the experiment, the student notices that the bangle is not getting coated with silver. What change should the student make to successfully electroplate the bangle with silver? (xiv) (a) Increase the current supplied during electroplating. (b) Connect the bangle to the negative electrode (cathode). (c) Use alternating current (AC) instead of direct current (DC). (d) Replace the sodium argentocyanide solution with cobalt sulphate. A hydrocarbon gas has a mass of 14 g and occupies 11.2 L at STP. What is its molecular formula? (a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Ethene (d) Ethyne Page 5 of 14 [Turn over] (xv) During a chemistry lab experiment, a student mixes two organic compounds, A and B, in the presence of concentrated sulphuric acid (conc. H SO ). The student notices a fruity smell coming from one of the products formed. If compound A contains the functional group OH (hydroxyl group), which of the following functional groups is most likely present in compound B? (a) NH3 (Amino group) (b) CHO (Aldehyde group) (c) C CH (Alkyne group) (d) COOH (Carboxyl group) Question 2 (i) [5] Match the following: Column A (a) The alloy containing copper and zinc is hard, silveryyellow in colour and is used for decorative articles Column B (1) Stainless steel and musical instruments. (b) The alloy made of aluminium, copper, manganese, (2) Solder and magnesium is lightweight, strong and used for making tools and aircraft parts. (c) The alloy composed of iron, chromium, nickel (3) Bronze and carbon is lustrous, corrosion-resistant and used in surgical instruments and kitchenware. (d) The alloy of lead and tin has a low melting point (4) Brass and is used for soldering in electrical and electronic circuits. (e) The alloy formed from copper and tin is hard, brittle, (5) Duralumin has a shiny finish and is used for making statues and medals. (ii) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket: (a) Compound A reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid to give an acidic gas that is highly soluble in water and fumes in moist air. Its aqueous solution gives a curdy white precipitate with silver nitrate, which is soluble in ammonia solution. A is: _____ (Sodium chloride / Zinc carbonate / Potassium sulphate) Page 6 of 14 [5] (b) Compound B , when subjected to a flame test, gives a lilac flame. When barium chloride solution is added to its aqueous solution, a white precipitate forms that is insoluble in dilute hydrochloric acid. B is: ______ (Potassium sulphate / Copper(II) sulphate / Sodium chloride) (c) Salt C gives a pale blue precipitate with ammonium hydroxide, which dissolves in excess to form an inky blue solution of a complex ion. C is: _______ (Zinc nitrate / Copper(II) nitrate / Potassium nitrate) (d) When dilute sulphuric acid is added to solution D , a gas is evolved that turns lime water milky and acidified potassium dichromate solution from orange to clear green. D is: ________ (Calcium sulphite / Zinc sulphate / Copper carbonate) (e) When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to salt E , brisk effervescence occurs and the gas produced turns limewater milky. On adding zinc sulphate to salt E , a white precipitate is formed. E is: _______ (Sodium chloride / Sodium carbonate / Copper(II) sulphate) (iii) Complete the table. Structure (iv) [5] IUPAC name Common name Ethanal (a) (b) Acetylene (c) (d) (e) Methyl alcohol Identify the gas evolved in the following reactions: (a) [5] A reaction between magnesium nitride and warm water produces a colourless gas. When this gas is tested with phenolphthalein, the solution turns pink (b) A reaction of Aluminium with boiling concentrated caustic alkali solution. (c) Concentrated hydrochloric acid is made to react with manganese dioxide. (d) A few crystals of potassium nitrate are heated in a hard glass test tube. (e) Excess of ammonia gas is reacted with chlorine gas. Page 7 of 14 [Turn over] (v) You are a chemistry student in a laboratory assigned to prepare five different [5] salts for an upcoming experiment. You are provided with a variety of reagents: metals, nonmetals, soluble and insoluble bases, acids and salts. In the lab, you know that salts can be prepared using several methods, depending on their solubility, reactivity and stability: 1. Direct combination A metal reacts with a nonmetal to form a salt, often producing a black-coloured insoluble product. 2. Displacement reaction An active metal reacts with a dilute acid, displacing hydrogen gas to form a soluble salt. 3. Neutralization reaction An acid reacts with an insoluble metal oxide to form a salt and water. 4. Titration (acid base reaction) A dilute acid is titrated with a soluble base to produce a salt solution, which can then be crystallized. 5. Precipitation reaction Two soluble salts react in solution to form an insoluble salt that precipitates out. In addition to chemical reactivity, factors such as safety, ease of purification, and yield must be considered when selecting a method in the laboratory. Choose, from the list provided, the best method for preparing each of the following salts. For each case, provide a suitable balanced chemical equation. Note: Do not repeat the method of preparation. (a) Zinc Sulphate (b) Lead nitrate (c) Potassium sulphate (d) Calcium carbonate (e) Ferrous sulphide SECTION B (40 Marks) (Attempt any four questions from this Section.) Question 3 (i) In a chemistry lab, a student sets up an experiment as shown in the diagram. He carefully adds concentrated sulphuric acid to a sample of sugar (sucrose) placed in a clean test tube. Immediately, the mixture heats up rapidly and the sugar turns black, forming a porous, charcoal-like mass. Steam rises from the mixture, accompanied by a sharp, pungent smell. The student notes these observations and wonders about the underlying chemical process and the role of the acid: Page 8 of 14 [2] (a) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (b) Identify the property of concentrated sulphuric acid responsible for the observed changes. (ii) A student was asked to draw a flowchart illustrating the extraction of aluminium [2] from alumina based on the principles of metallurgy. The student presented a five-step flowchart, but two steps out of the five were incorrect. Identify and correct them. (iii) Neha heated 993 g of a white crystalline solid in a test tube. During heating, reddish- [3] brown fumes with a sharp, pungent smell and a colourless gas that rekindled a glowing splint were evolved. A yellow residue was left behind, which fused with the glass test tube upon strong heating. The solid has a molar mass of 331 g and upon complete decomposition, it produces a solid residue with a molar mass of 223 g, along with two gaseous products in the molar ratio 4 : 1. (a) Analyse the experimental observations and deduce the balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place. Page 9 of 14 [Turn over] (b) Based on the given mass and molar mass, deduce the number of moles of the solid residue produced during decomposition. (c) Using your balanced equation, analyse the stoichiometric relationships to determine the total moles of gases produced. (iv) State the role played by each of the substances given below: (a) Molybdenum in the Haber process (b) Vanadium pentoxide in the contact process (c) Quick lime in the laboratory preparation of ammonia [3] Question 4 (i) The brown ring test is a classical [2] qualitative test for the presence of nitrate ions in a solution. It is called the brown ring test because a brown-coloured ring forms at the junction of two liquids if nitrate ions are present. (ii) (iii) (iv) (a) Why is freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution used in this test? (b) What is the chemical name of the brown ring? Complete and balance the following chemical equations: (a) C2H6 + O2 [excess] (b) CH4 + O2 [excess] Write the ionic equations for the following: (a) Reaction at the anode for electrolysis of molten alumina. (b) Reaction at the cathode for electroplating an article with silver. (c) Reaction at the cathode for the electro-refining of impure copper. A compound gave the following data: C = 57.82%, O = 38.58% and the rest hydrogen. Its vapour density is 83. Find its empirical and molecular formula. [C = 12, O = 16, H = 1] Page 10 of 14 [2] [3] [3] Question 5 (i) Draw the electron dot diagram for the compounds given below. Represent the [2] electrons by dots and crosses in the diagram. (ii) (a) The basic gas which turns Nessler s reagent brown. (b) The neutral gas found abundantly in the air around us. Calculate the percentage of carbon in a 55% pure sample of calcium carbonate. [2] [Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16] (iii) [3] Compound X reacts with ammonia in a combustion tube, leaving a brownishpink residue and releasing the neutral gas Y. Study the diagram and answer the following questions: (iv) (a) Identify X and Y. (b) State property Z of ammonia demonstrated in this reaction. [3] Give balanced chemical equations for the following observations: (a) A blue-coloured compound, when strongly heated, produces a greenish mass that subsequently turns into a black residue. During this process, a reddishbrown gas is evolved along with another gas that rekindles a glowing splint. (b) A highly deliquescent salt gives a reddish-brown precipitate when a solution of caustic soda is added to it. (c) A white crystalline solid, which decrepitates on heating, reacts with muriatic acid to produce a white precipitate that is soluble in hot water. Question 6 (i) In a laboratory experiment, students investigate the hydrogenation of hydrocarbons. [2] They start with an alkyne containing two carbon atoms and treat it with hydrogen gas in the presence of a catalyst 'A'. This reaction leads to the formation of a twocarbon saturated hydrocarbon. The reaction can be represented as: + (a) Identify the catalyst 'A' used in the conversion. (b) Write the complete balanced chemical equation for the above reaction. Page 11 of 14 [Turn over] (ii) An unknown organic compound has the molecular formula C H O. During a [2] chemical investigation, it is observed that the compound reacts vigorously with sodium metal at room temperature, releasing hydrogen gas. Further analysis shows that the functional group is attached to the first carbon atom. (a) Analyze the given information and identify the homologous series to which the compound belongs. (b) Draw structural formula of the compound, showing all atoms and bonds clearly. (iii) An aluminium extraction plant is operating its electrolytic cells for the Hall [3] Heroult s process. During routine checks, engineers observe certain challenges affecting the efficiency and quality of aluminium production: (1) Observation A: The surface of the molten aluminium is exposed to air during electrolysis. To prevent problems, powdered coke is sprinkled over the electrolytic mixture. (2) Observation B: The graphite anodes used in the electrolysis need to be replaced frequently during operation. (3) Observation C: The plant manager notices that the mixture of alumina and electrolyte is not conducting electricity efficiently and requires cryolite and fluorspar to be added. (a) Explain why powdered coke is sprinkled over the electrolytic mixture. (b) Analyze why graphite anodes are continuously replaced during electrolysis. (c) Justify why cryolite and fluorspar are added to the electrolytic mixture instead of using pure alumina. (iv) State the appropriate observations for each of the following: (a) Ferrous sulphide is treated with dilute sulphuric acid. (b) A few drops of dilute hydrochloric acid added to silver nitrate solution, followed by addition of ammonium hydroxide solution. (c) Lead nitrate solution is treated with sodium hydroxide solution drop wise till it is in excess Page 12 of 14 [3] Question 7 (i) [2] Give the IUPAC name of the compound represented below: Where, C stands for Carbon, O for oxygen, X for hydrogen, for ethyl group (a) (b) (ii) (iii) Justify the following statements: [2] (a) Pure acetic acid also called glacial acetic acid. (b) Hydrogen chloride fumes in the air. While studying organic compounds, Ananya observes that two different compounds [3] have the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements of atoms. She becomes curious to know what this phenomenon is called. She then studies a compound with the molecular formula C5H12 and finds that it exists in forms having branched chains. (a) What is the term used for compounds with the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements? (b) Give the IUPAC names and draw the structures of the isomers of C5H12 which have a branched chain. (iv) Write a chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds [3] using an appropriate reagent: (a) Fe2+ salt and Fe3+ salt (b) Saturated hydrocarbon and unsaturated hydrocarbon (c) Dilute Sulphuric acid and dilute hydrochloric acid Page 13 of 14 [Turn over] Question 8 (i) (ii) (iii) Define: (a) Catenation (b) Ore [2] Draw the structural formula of the following organic compounds (a) 2-methylbutan-2-ol (b) 2,3- dichloropentanal Aarav is a chemistry student performing an experiment in his laboratory on [2] [3] hydrocarbons. He is given an unknown hydrocarbon sample and asked to determine its molecular structure. During his preliminary investigation, Aarav records the following information: The empirical formula of the hydrocarbon is C H . The hydrocarbon has a relative molecular mass of 54. The sample is volatile and flammable, indicating it belongs to a homologous series of unsaturated hydrocarbons. Upon combustion, it produces carbon dioxide and water, confirming it contains only carbon and hydrogen. Atomic weights: H = 1, C = 12. (a) What is the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon? (b) Using the molecular formula, draw the structural formulas of the position isomers of the hydrocarbon. (iv) Rahul s uncle owns a fruit shop. One day, Rahul noticed that the bananas in the storage room were kept with a few small packets containing a white crystalline substance. His uncle explained that the substance helps the bananas ripen faster by releasing a gas when it reacts with moisture in the air. (a) Identify the chemical present in the packets. (b) Name the gas released during this process. (c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction leading to the release of this gas Page 14 of 14 [3] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2025-2026) SUBJECT BIOLOGY Std: X Date: 04/12/2025 Max Marks: 80 Duration: 2 h Answer to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in the bracket [ ]. SECTION A (40 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this Section.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) [15] (i) Homo erectus was notable in human evolution for an early discovery that greatly improved survival during cold conditions and cooking. (a) Discovering fire (b) Inventing agriculture (c) Using simple tools (d) Developing language (ii) Over-secretion of Somatotropin in adults, after the fusion of the long bone epiphyses, leads to: (a) Gigantism (b) Dwarfism (c) Acromegaly (d) Myxoedema (iii) A human somatic cell has 46 chromosomes. How many of these are autosomes and how many are allosomes? (a) 23 autosomes + 23 allosomes (b) 44 autosomes + 2 allosomes (c) 22 autosomes + 24 allosomes (d) 21 autosomes + 25 allosomes (iv) Biston betularia, a species of peppered moth, developed darker forms in industrial areas to blend with soot-covered trees. This evolutionary change is an example of: (a) Mimicry (b) Camouflage (c) Natural selection (d) Selective breeding The Paper consists of 7 printed pages. 1 of 6 (v) In Pavlov s experiment on dogs, the animals began to salivate at the sound of a bell even before food was presented. This behaviour is an example of: (a) Natural reflex (b) Conditioned reflex (c) Voluntary action (d) Involuntary action (vi) Assertion (A): People living in the mountain region often suffer from simple goitre. Reason (R): The thyroid gland secretes less thyroxine due to deficiency of iodine. (a) A is true and R is the correct explanation of A (b) A is true but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is false but R is true (d) Both A and R are false (vii) During light adaptation, the pupil of the human eye will (a) Dilates; regenerates (b) Constricts; bleaches (c) Dilates; bleaches (d) Constricts; regenerates and rhodopsin : (viii) The average lifespan of a human red blood cell is about: (a) 30 days (b) 90 days (c) 120 days (d) 180 days (ix) Aawais skips breakfast and feels light-headed. Which hormone is released to raise his blood glucose? (a) Insulin (b) Growth hormone (c) Thyroxine (d) Glucagon (x) The diagram below shows a neuron. Its main function is to: (a) Phagocytose pathogens (b) Conduct nerve impulses (c) Secrete hormones (d) Carry oxygen 2 of 6 (xi) In a normal 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs around day triggered by a surge of hormone. (a) 14: FSH (b) 14: LH (c) 21: Estrogen (d) 28: Progesterone and is (xii) A gardener sprays a dwarf pea plant with a plant hormone to increase its stem length. The hormone used is: (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin (c) Gibberellin (d) Abscisic acid (xiii)Ankur s urine test shows an abnormally high protein content. He is most likely suffering from: (a) Glucosuria (b) Albuminuria (c) Hematuria (d) Leucopenia (xiv) The permanent end of a woman s reproductive phase (when menstruation stops, usually around age 45 50) is called: (a) Menopause (b) Puberty (c) Menarche (d) Oogenesis (xv) The body s balance (equilibrium) is mainly maintained by the: (a) Cerebellum and inner ear (b) Cerebrum and cochlea (c) Brainstem and pinna (d) Frontal lobe and eardrum Question 2 (i) Give the biological / technical terms for the following: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) [5] Waste material in air that causes respiratory problems when mixed with fog. The protective covering that encloses and safeguards the brain and spinal cord. Pressure generated in root cells by absorbed water that drives water up the xylem. The fluid in the eye that helps focus light and maintains intraocular pressure. The tube connecting the pharynx to the middle ear to equalize pressure. 3 of 6 (ii) Given below is a paragraph on the human heart. Read the information carefully and fill in the blanks: The heart is enclosed by a membrane called the (a) blood into the (b) . The left ventricle pumps , and the right ventricle pumps blood into the (c) The flaps of the atrio-ventricular valves are kept in position by (d) (e) [5] . , while the arteries supply oxygenated blood to the walls of the heart itself. (iii) Study the diagram of the human female reproductive system below and match each labelled structure with its function. Human female reproductive system [5] Function A. Houses and nourishes the developing foetus during pregnancy.. B. Lower narrow part of the uterus that opens into the vagina. C. Serves as the birth canal and receives the penis during copulation. D. Transports the ovum from the ovary to the uterus and is the site of fertilisation. E. Produces ova (eggs) and secretes female sex hormones. (iv) Rustomji visits an eye doctor for a vision check-up. On the wall, he notices a chart with several questions about the human eye. Read the questions carefully and answer the questions that follow: [5] (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (iii) Which part of the eye regulates the amount of light entering it? Name the yellow sensitive spot on the retina responsible for sharp vision. Which part of the eye maintains the shape of the eyeball and holds the retina in position? Name the transparent structure that focuses light rays on the retina. Which nerve carries the impulses from the retina to the brain? Choose the odd term out from each of the following sets of terms. Mention the category to which the remaining four belong: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) [5] Tall, Round seed, Yellow seed, Green pod, White flower Vas deferens, Ureter, Urethra, Nephron, Urinary bladder Auxin, Gibberellin, Cytokinin, Adrenaline, Abscisic acid Medulla oblongata, Pulmonary vein, Cerebrum, Cerebellum, Spinal cord Chlorophyll, Stomata, Grana, Thylakoid, Mitochondria 4 of 6 SECTION B (Attempt any four questions from this Section) Question 3 (i) Define guttation. (ii) Differentiate between genotype and phenotype of an organism. (iii) What is the scientific name of Mendel s pea plant and state one reason why he chose it for his experiments. (iv) What is meant by hypotonic solution? How do cells behave in an hypotonic solution? (v) Observe the diagram and answer the following questions. [1] [2] [2] [2] [3] (a) Name the surgical process shown in the image. (b) Which part of the male reproductive system is cut and tied during this process? (c) What is the main purpose of performing this surgical procedure? Question 4 (i) State Mendel s Law of Segregation. [1] (ii) In which of the following conditions is the rate of transpiration higher [2] (a) a windy, dry day or (b) a still, humid day? Give a reason for your answer. (iii) Write the full form (expansion) of each: ATP; DNA. [2] (iv) Which tube equalizes pressure on both sides of the eardrum? Name one part of the ear where this tube opens. [2] (v) Santosh observes that in a certain cross of pea plants 150 offspring are tall and 50 are short [3] in F2 generation (a) What were the genotypes of the two parent plants ? (b) Which trait is dominant in F1? (c) What are the expected phenotypic and genotypic ratios in the F2 offspring? Question 5 (i) Define menarche. (ii) In what form is excess glucose stored in the following? (a) animals (b) plants (iii) Riya is playing cricket and focuses on a ball thrown at her. She suddenly remembers playing the same game with her father. (a) Which lobe of the cerebrum helps her to focus on the ball? (b) Which lobe of the cerebrum helps her to remember playing with her father? (iv) State two major functions of the endoplasmic reticulum in a cell. (v) Draw a neat labelled structure of a human sperm. [1] [2] [2] [2] [3] 5 of 6 Question 6 (i) Define mortality rate. (ii) A region has a population of 50000. Births = 1000, Deaths = 500. Find the growth rate per 1000 people. (iii) Name the process by which water vapour is lost from the surface of aerial parts of plants. How can plants reduce this process using one adaptation? (iv) Which part of nephron lies in the: (a) Renal cortex (b) Renal medulla (v) Draw and label a magnified view of a plant root tip showing a root hair cell. [1] [2] [2] [2] [3] Question 7 (i) How does depletion of the ozone layer affect life on Earth? Give one effect. (ii) State any two features that distinguish Australopithecus from modern humans. (iii) With the help of a neat labelled diagram, show how the defect of myopia is corrected. (iv) Write one function each of cerumen or ear wax and ear ossicles. (v) Observe the given diagram and answer the questions that follow. [1] [2] [2] [2] [3] (a) Name the tropic movement displayed by the shoots. (b) Why do the roots always grow downward? (c) Which plant hormone helps regulate these responses? Question 8 (i) What is biodegradable waste? Give an example. (ii) State any two objectives of Swacchh Bharat Abhiyan. (iii) Draw a neat, labelled diagram of a stomatal apparatus as seen in the leaf. (iv) Give one example of a gene and its allele. (v) Riya covered part of a healthy green leaf with dark paper and left the plant in sunlight. Later she tested the leaf with iodine solution. [1] [2] [2] [2] [3] (a) Which part(s) of the leaf turned blue-black? (b) Explain the reason for this result. (c) Write the balanced chemical reaction of photosynthesis. 6 of 6 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION- I (2025-2026) SUBJECT HISTORY & CIVICS Std.: X Max. Marks: 80 Date: 06/12/2025 Duration: 2h Answers to this Paper must be written on the answer sheet provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of five questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. PART -I (Attempt all questions from this Part.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.) [16] (i) With reference to the Union Parliament identify the correct statement. (a) The Rajya Sabha elects its own Chairman from among its own members. (b) The Vice President of India is elected by both the Houses of the Parliament. (c) A state of national emergency is proclaimed by the Vice-President of India. (d) The Rajya Sabha can decide by three-fourths majority to set up a new All India Service. (ii) Imagine the Vice President of India is unable to fulfil his duties due to a sudden health crisis, and the President is abroad for an official visit. Who would temporarily assume the responsibilities of the Vice President in such a situation? (a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha. (b) A member of the Rajya Sabha, appointed by the President (c) The Prime minister of India (d) Deputy Chairman (iii) Complete the following analogy Against unlawful detention: Writ of Habeas corpus :: Against illegal holding of an office: ____________ (a) Writ of Quo Warranto (b) Writ of Mandamus (c) Writ of Prohibition (d) Writ of Certiorari (iv) Arrange the following events of the 1857 revolt in chronological order. (i) Battle of Plassey (ii) Queen Victoria s Proclamation. (iii)Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh. (iv) Introduction of Enfield Rifle. (a) (b) (c) (d) i, ii, iii, iv iii, i, ii, iv i, iii, iv, ii i, iv, iii, ii This Paper consists of 6 printed pages. Page 1 of 6 (v) (vi) Identify the ODD ONE out from the following statements related to the British economic exploitation in India. (a) India was turned into a supplier of raw materials like cotton, jute and indigo for British industries. (b) British policies imposed high land taxes on Indian farmers, which drained the rural economy. (c) British policies encouraged the growth of food crops for local consumption. (d) Farmers were forced to grow cash crops like opium and cotton for export, neglecting food crops. Look at the picture given below and identify the personalities. (a) Surendranath Banerjee, Dadabhai Naorji, Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Dadabhai Naorji, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra Pal. (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Dadabhai Naorji (d) Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal. (vii) Read the following statements and select the option which shows the correct relationship between (A) and (R) Assertion (A): British wanted to prevent Muslims from participating in any political Movement. Reason (R): The British opposed the formation of the Mohammedan Anglo- Oriental Defence association in 1893. (a) (R) contradicts (A). (b) (A) is true (R) is false. (c) (A) and (R) both are false. (d) (R) is the reason for (A) (viii) Which of the following statement is NOT associated with the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? (a) It happened in the year 1919. (b) General Dyer was responsible for this massacre. (c) It became a cause of the Non-Cooperation Movement. (d) It became a cause for the Civil-Disobedience Movement. (ix) Read the following statements and select the option which shows the correct relationship between (A) and (R) Assertion (A): Subhash Chandra Bose led the Indian National Army (INA) in its fight against British colonial rule during World War II. Reason (R): Subhas Chandra Bose believed that collaborating with Japan and Nazi Germany would help India in gaining independence from British rule. (a) (R) contradicts (A). (b) (A) is true (R) is false. (c) (A) and (R) both are false. (d) (R) is the reason for (A) Page 2 | 6 (x) Read the following description and identify the person. He set up the Servants of India Society in 1905. (a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (b) Dadabhai Naoroji (c) Surendranath Banerjee (d) M.G.Ranade (xi) What was the cause for the sudden suspension of the Non Cooperation Movement? (a) Repressive measures of the British. (b) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact. (c) The Chauri-Chaura incident. (d) The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre. (xii) Which of these was NOT a Provision of the Indian Independence Act, 1947? (a) There would be a Governor General for each dominion. (b) There would be no division of the army. (c) The office of the Secretary of State was abolished (d) The Jurisdiction of the British Parliament would end. (xiii) Identify the pair of statements which is correct about the Fascism. (P) The word Fascism is related to authoritarian regime of Italy. (Q) Nazism is historically tied to authoritarian regime of Hitler. (R) Fascism was the outcome of the First World War. (S) Treaty of Paris hampered the growth of the Germany in early 20 th Century. (a) P and S (b) P and R (c) Q and S (d) Q and R (xiv) Complete the following analogy: Beginning of the World War I : 28th July, 1914 :: Treaty ofVersailles: ______________ (a) 18th June, 1918 (b) 5th October 1918 (c) 28th June, 1919 (d) 11th November 1918 (xv) Hitler attacked Poland because he wanted to (a) Seize the coal mines (b) Militarise the Rhine valley (c) Regain the Danzig port (d) Control the trade (xvi) Read the newspaper heading and identify the organization responsible for issuing global health warnings (a) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation. (b) United Nations International Children s Emergency fund. (c) World Health Organisation. (d) United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees. Page 3 | 6 Question 2 (a) State two announcement which adversely affected the Mughal dynasty in India? (b) When was the Quit India resolution passed? Give two reasons for the launching of this movement? (c) Mention two contributions of Subhash Chandra Bose to India s freedom struggle. (d) State two similarities between the principles of Nazism and Fascism (e) What are residuary powers and which authority is responsible for making laws for them? (f) Mention two reasons for adopting the indirect method of election for the President. (g) Mention any two ways in which the constitution ensures the independence of the Judiciary from the Executive. [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] [2] SECTION A Attempt any two questions from this section Question 3 The Parliament of India comprises of the President and the two houses of Parliament. With reference to the Indian Parliament answer the following questions: (a) Mention three exclusive powers of Rajya Sabha. (b) Explain the following terms i. Question hour ii. Quorum iii. No confidence motion (c) When can the term of Lok Sabha be extended? Mention any three powers of Lok Sabha which shows its superiority over the Rajya Sabha. [3] [3] [4] Question 4 The Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, is the most powerful institution in the Indian polity. With reference to the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, answer the following questions. . (a) What are the three legislative powers of Cabinet Ministers? [3] (b) What is the position of the Prime Minister under the Parliamentary system of government? [3] (c) Why is the Prime Minister regarded as the leader of the nation? [4] Question 5 Observe the image given below and answer the following questions. (a) Identify the building in the picture. Where is it located? State its composition. (b) State three qualifications required to be a Judge in this court. (c) Which types of cases come under the original jurisdiction of the court shown in the given picture? [3] [3] [4] Page 4 | 6 SECTION B Attempt any three questions from this section Question 6 Although the First War of independence of 1857 failed, it had important consequences for India In this context, answer the following questions: (a) Explain briefly the British policies of expansion in India. [3] (b) The Indian army was reorganised after 1858, to prevent the reoccurrence of another uprising. Analyse this statement by stating any three changes made in the army. [3] (c) State any four features of the Queen Victoria s Proclamation of 1858 [4] Question 7 Read the excerpt given below and answer the questions that follow Even before the march began, thousands began to throng the Sabarmati ashram in anticipation of the dramatic events that lay ahead. And as Gandhiji began his march, staff in his hand at the head office dedicated banned, there was something in the image that deeply stirred the imagination of the people. News of his progress, of his speeches, of the teaming crowds that greet and follow the Marchers, of the long road lovingly strewn with leaves and festooned with banners and flags, of men and women quietly paying their homage by spinning yarns on their charkhas as Gandhiji passed, of the three hundred village officials in Gujarat who resigned their posts in answer to his appeal, was carried day after day by newspaper to readers across the country and broadcasted live by thousands of congress workers to eager listeners. Source: India s struggle for independence by Bipin Chandra. (a) Name the movement Which event marked the beginning of this movement? Mention any two objectives of the movement. (b) State any three impacts of this movement (c) Why did the second-round table conference fail? [3] [3] [4] Question 8 Observe the given picture and answer the following question. (a) Identify the personality in the given picture. Mention any two of his ideologies. (b) Britain and France chose to follow the policy of appeasement towards dictatorial nations like Germany and Italy. Justify. (c) How did the division of the world into two power blocs lead to the beginning of the Cold War? [3] [3] [4] Page 5 | 6 Question 9 The United Nations Organisation aims to maintain international peace. With reference to its organs and agencies answer the following: (a) What is the composition of the international court of Justice? [3] (b) Mention any three functions of the General Assembly. [3] (c) Gujarat s famed garba dance received the intangible heritage tag. Which agency of the [4] United Nations is authorised to give this tag? Mention any three others contributions of that agency in the preservation of culture Question 10 The concept of non-aligned movement emerged during the Cold war. With reference to the non-aligned movement answer the following questions: (a) What is the meaning of non-alignment movement? Mention the founding members of the [3] Non-Aligned movement. (b) State any three objectives of NAM. [3] (c) Mention the Panchsheel principles [4] Page 6 | 6 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-I (2025 2026) SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY Std: X Max Marks: 80 Date: 09/12/2025 Duration: 2h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted. A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ____________________________________________________________________________ PART-1 [30 Marks] Attempt all the questions from part I QUESTION 1 Study the given extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. G43S10 and answer the questions that follow: {Eastings 62-72 and Northings 12-22} (i) Give the six-figure grid reference for the triangulated height 1327 located near Ramkund ka pahar. (ii) Calculate the area in kilometers for the region enclosed between eastings 63-69 and northings 13-20. (iii) Identify the feature, apart from dry streams, marked in black curved lines to the northwestern corner of the map extract. (iv) Which bank of Jhambua Nadi is the post-office located in? (v) Identify the type of natural vegetation observed to the east of Kacholi Dungar. (vi) Name the drainage pattern observed in grid square 6818. (vii) State any one reason which indicates that the region given in the map extract receives scanty rainfall. (viii) Identify the following (a) 6r in grid square 6614. (b) 12r in grid square 6913. (ix) What is the type of slope observed in grid square 6716? [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [2] [1] QUESTION 2 On the outline map of India provided: (i) Mark and label Bengaluru. (ii) Draw and label the latitude that passes through the centre of the country. (iii) Mark and label River Brahmaputra. (iv) Mark and label the Palk Strait. (v) Mark and name a densely populated region in the southern part of the country. (vi) Mark and label the highest mountain peak of India. (vii) Mark and label the fresh water Lake in India. (viii) Mark and label the Northern Circars. (ix) Mark and label the region with the largest reserve of iron ore. (x) Shade and label the region of coastal alluvium. This paper consists of 5 printed pages [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] Turn Over QUESTION 3 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) [10] (i) The gap in rainfall in the months of July-August during the Southwest Monsoon is called as ___________. (a) Break in the Monsoon (b) Burst of Monsoon (c) October Heat (d) Kalbaishakhi (ii) Assertion (A): Alluvial soils are formed ex situ. Reason (R ): Ex-Situ soils are found where they are formed. (a) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation of A. (b) Both Aand R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (iii) Which of the following forests has trees with entangled root structure? (a) Mountain forest (b) Deciduous forest (c) Rainforests (d) Tidal forests. (iv) Persian wheel, Mhote, Lever etc, are methods of supplying water associated with ___________irrigation. (a) tank (b) well (c) canal (d) tube wells (v)Which of the following variety of coal has the least carbon content? (a) Anthracite (b) Bituminous (c) Lignite (d) Peat (vi) Gobind Sagar is the reservoir on ________ dam. (a) Hirakud (b) Nangal (c) Bhakra (d) Sardar Sarovar (vii) Which of the following combination, with reference to nuclear energy resources, is incorrect? (a) Kalpakkam-TamilNadu (b) Kaiga-Karnataka (c) Tarapore-Rajasthan (d) Kakrapur-Gujarat Page 2 of 6 (viii) Which of the following methods of farming has the characteristic features such as monoculture, intensive labour, huge capital investment etc.? (a) Commercial farming (b) Extensive farming (c) Plantation farming (d) Mixed farming (ix) Which of the following organizations looks into strengthening the defence preparedness and accelerating economic growth through improvements of roads along the eastern and NE boundary of the country? (a) National Highway Authority of India (b)National Highway Development Project (c) Border Road Organization (d) Purvanchal Expressways (x) The burning of solid waste should be avoided as: (a) It needs fuel (b) It causes increased temperature (c) It does not produce enough energy (d) It is non eco friendly PART II (50 Marks) Attempt any five questions from Part-II QUESTION 4 Cyclone Montha hit the Andhra Pradesh coast with heavy rainfall. In the Arabian Sea, wind direction changes with the monsoon. (i) As a student of Geography, what according to you are the reasons for increasing number of tropical cyclones. (ii)What are the characteristics of retreating monsoon? (iii) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: (a) Ooty in TamilNadu is cool in summer despite being located in the Southern Peninsula of India. (b) Mangalore and Chennai lie on the same latitude, yet Mangalore receives more rainfall than Chennai. (c) Most of India remains dry during the northeast monsoon season. (iv) Answer the following: (a)Name a crop and the state benefitted by the Kalbaishakhi. (b)How do jet streams affect the climate of India? [2] [2] [3] [3] QUESTION 5 (i) State two points to differentiate between new and old alluvial soil. [2] (ii) Name the soil having more air circulation capacity? State a region in India where this soil is largely found. [2] (iii) Soil erosion is a gradual process that occurs when the impact of water or wind detaches and remove soil particles causing soil to deteriorate.Soil deterioration and low water quality due to erosion and surface runoff have become severe problems worldwide . Observe the image given below and answer the questions that follow: Page 3 of 6 (a) What is depicted in the above image? (b) What is the main cause for the occurrence of above ? (c) Suggest a measure to prevent it. (iv) Give a reason for each of the following: (a) Laterite soil is acidic in nature. (b) Alluvial soil is called as riverine soil. (c) Shelter belts reduce soil erosion in regions along the Thar Desert. [3] [3] QUESTION 6 (i) Give two reasons for the depletion of forests in India. [2] (ii) State two points of difference between Tropical Evergreen and Tropical Deciduous Forests. [2] (iii) Give a reason for each of the following: (a) Littoral forest is also called as the tidal forest. (b) Trees in the desert forests grow long roots. (c) Forests contribute to the industrial development. [3] (iv) What is agro-forestry? State two objectives of it. [3] QUESTION 7 (i) Identify the type of irrigation. Give one advantage of it. (ii) Give two reasons for the need of irrigation in India. (iii) Name the following: (a) Efficient management and conservation of both ground and surface water resources by prevention of run-offs, storage and recharge of groundwater. (b) Canal taken out from rivers by constructing dams or barrages to control the flow of water. (c) Traditional irrigation method popular in the Deccan region. (iv) Give a reason each for the following: (a)Modern method of irrigation is environment friendly. (b) Canal irrigation has not much developed in South India. (c)There is a growing need to conserve water. Page 4 of 6 [2] [2] [3] [3] QUESTION 8 (i) Mention any one use of copper. Which state is the largest producer of copper in India? (ii) State two advantages of wind energy. Name the largest windmill in India. (iii)Name the following: (a) Gulf of Khambat and Gulf of Kutch are proposed regions for the exploitation of this form of energy. (b) Largest oilfield in India. (c) An industry which uses iron ore as raw material. (iv) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: (a) Solar energy can be better harvested in India. (b) Biogas is beneficial for farmers. (c) Use of nuclear energy reduces greenhouse gas emission. [2] [2] [3] [3] QUESTION 9 (i) What is the role of agriculture in Indian economy? [2] (ii) Renowned globally for its richly coloured and aromatic tea, Assam,the countries largest tea producer provides livelyhood to millions with many others directly or indirectly dependent on the plantation sector. Assam now produces nearly 700 million kg of tea annually and accounts for around half of India's overall tea production (a) What are the favourable climatic conditions for tea cultivation in Assam? (b) Why mountain slopes are preferred for tea plantations? [2] (iii) Observe the given image and answer the questions that follow: (a) Name the method of practice and which agricultural crop does this method relate to? (b) Which state is the largest producer of this crop? (c) State an advantage for the crop from the activity shown in the image. (iv) Give a reason each for the following: (a) Wheat is grown in the Northern Plain region of India. (b) Oilseeds are economically important. (c) Jute is retted. [3] [3] QUESTION 10 (i) (a) Name an iron steel industry set up in Odisha with the help of a famous German firm. (b) From where does the industry get its iron ore and manganese. [2] (ii) Give two reasons to justify the importance of industrialization in India. [2] (iii) Name any two electronic industries set up by the government with which the electronic sector developed and diversified in India.Which city is known as the Electronic Capital of India? [3] (iv) Explain any three problems being faced by the sugar industry. [3] Page 5 of 6 QUESTION 11 (i) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of waterways. (ii) Roadways are better than any other mode of transport. Give two reasons to justify your answer. (iii) (a) A majority of Indians do not prefer airways as a mode of transport. Explain with one point. (b) Railways bind the economic and cultural life of the country. Justify the statement giving two reasons. (iv) What are Expressways? Explain any two of its economic benefits. QUESTION 12 (i) Explain briefly the meaning of the following terms: (a)Sanitary Landfill (b) Eutrophication (ii) What is the impact of waste generation on the following? (a) Surface water (b) Landscape. (iii) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: (a) Waste can be better managed by not choosing to Use and Throw products. (b) Recycling of waste can reduce deforestation. (iv) What is composting? Enumerate any two advantages of composting as a method of waste disposal. Page 6 of 6 [2] [2] [3] [3] [2] [2] [3] [3] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-I (2025-26) SUBJECT: PHYSICAL EDUCATION Std.: X Date: 11/12/2025 Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 2h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and two questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. SECTION A (50 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this Section.) Question1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the questions, write the correct answers only.) [20] (i) The ability of an infant to grasp an object is an example of: (a) Growth (b) Development (c) Recreation (d) Obesity (ii) Prenatal environment is the environment of ____________ (a) The previous nation (b) The child after birth (c) The child during birth (d) The foetus in the mother's womb (iii) Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Assertion(A): Heredity is the transmission of physical characteristics from parents to children through their genes. Reason(R): The heredity influences all aspects of physical appearance such as height, weight, body structure, colour of the eye, the texture of the hair, and even intelligence and aptitudes. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? (a) (b) (c) (d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (A) is true, but (R) is false (A) is false, but (R) is true (iv) Physical development is __________ (a) The process by which a child learns to interact with others around them. (b) The process that starts from infancy and continues into late adolescent concentrating on gross and fine motor skills as well as puberty. (c) The development of cognitive, emotional and social capabilities. (d) The ability to recognize, express and manage feelings at different stages of life. Page 1 (v) Simon, a 50-year-old man, has recently been diagnosed with hypertension and he finds difficult to do daily routine activities What will be the doctor's suggestion in this case? (a) Take rest (b) Participate in social activities (c) Participate in physical activities (d) Watch television and relax. (vi) Who came up with the theory for Somatotype? (a) William Gilbert (b) William H. Sheldon (c) Charles-Augustin de Coulomb (d) Sheldon Lee Glashow (vii) What does Ectomorph refer to? (a) They are slender, lean and best suited to endurance activities. (b) They tend to have muscular body, with strong forearms and thighs. (c) They are stocky with large round body or pear shaped body. (d) They have short and thick neck. (viii) Which physical fitness test is used to assess cardiovascular endurance? (a) Push-ups test (b) Sit-ups test (c) Sit and reach test (d) Harvard step up test (ix) This activity tests your flexibility. (a) Cooper run test (b) Balance beam test (c) Sit and reach test (d) Juggling (x) Building up of waste products like .......... within the muscles cause the muscle to fatigue and weaken more easily: (a) Hydrochloric (b) Acetic acid (c) Lactic acid (d) Sulfuric acid (xi) A MCL injury is: (a) It is the inflammation of the plantar fascia ligament. (b) It is a tear or sprain of the anterior cruciate ligament. (c) It is a tear or sprain of the Medial Collateral ligament. (d) It is a traumatic injury to the brain that alters mental status. (xii) Which is the most common cause of sprained ankle injury? (a) Any repetitive motion of the wrist and arm. (b) Landing awkwardly on foot after jumping or pivoting. (c) Twisting the trunk in wrong way. (d) During car crashes and bike accidents. Page 2 (xiii) What kind of first aid is given for Achilles tendonitis injury? (a) R.I.C.E. (b) CPR (c) ABC (d) Direct pressure (xiv) The substance needed by body for growth, energy, repair and maintenance is called (a) Nutrient (b) Calorie (c) Carbohydrate (d) Fatty Acid (xv) Which of the following skills is essential for a sports commentator? (a) Cooking (b) Singing (c) Gardening (d) Communication (xvi) Which is the course for sports commentator in India? (a) NIS (b) D. P. ED. (c) PGD in mass communication (d) Diploma at SAI (xvii) B.P.Ed stands for ...... (a) Bachelor of Physical Education (b) Bachelor of Physical Development (c) Bachelor of Physics Education (d) Bachelor of psychology education. (xviii) According to which principle of sports training people respond differently to the same training stimulus? (a) Principle of Adaptation (b) Principle of Variance (c) Principle of Individuality (d) Principle of Reversibility (xix) The balance can be tested through which activity? (a) 100 m swimming (b) 1000 m run (c) Shot put (d) Balance beam test (xx) Which of the following is an objective of emotional development in physical education? (a) Improving cardiovascular fitness of an athlete. (b) Enhancing self-confidence and self-esteem. (c) Learning new motor skills and activities. (d) Increasing flexibility and endurance. Page 3 Question 2 (i) What do you understand by the term growth? (ii) Explain the term social development. (iii)Describe the adolescence stage of development. (iv) State any six typical traits of an endomorph body. Question 3 (i) Mention any four objectives of sports training. (ii) Define the term first aid. (iii)Explain lifestyle as a factor affecting physical fitness. (iv) Explain reversibility as a principle of sports training. [2] [2] [3] [3] [2] [2] [3] [3] Question 4 (i) Define the term health education. [2] (ii) Name the various career options in physical education. [2] (iii)What is fracture? State any four causes of fracture. [3] (iv) Jyoti, a 28-year-old passionate runner, has been experiencing discomfort in her lower legs during her runs. She describes the pain as a dull ache along the inner edge of her shinbone. She also notices tenderness and swelling in the affected area. Based on these symptoms: [3] (a) What injury Jyoti is experiencing? (b) What are the recommended First aid/treatment options? SECTION B (50 Marks) (Attempt two questions from this Section.) (You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.) CRICKET Question 5 (i) Explain the following terms: (a) An appeal (b) Body line bowling ( c) Night watchman (d) Leg before wicket (ii) (a) Mention any six fielding positions on "off side" of the field of play. (b) State any three duties of a captain during the match. (c) What are the signals of the main umpire for the following? (i) Bye (ii) Dead ball (iii) Free hit (iii) Explain the following terms in Cricket: (a) A duck (b) A century (c) Danger Area (d) A Pull shot Question 6 (i) Explain the following terms in Cricket: (a) Sight screen (b) Upper cut (c) Tail ender (d) Flick shot (ii) (a) Mention the essential wicket keeping skills in Cricket. (b) State any six ways of a batsman getting out in Cricket. Page 4 [8] [9] [8] [8] [9] (c) What is the importance of 30 yard circle in the game of Cricket? (iii) Explain the following terms in Cricket: (a) Short run (b) Power play (c) Bye (d) Free hit [8] FOOTBALL Question 7 (i) Write short note on: (a) Zonal marking (c) Advantage [8] (b) Technical area (d) Wall pass (ii) (a) Name any three fundamental skills of football. [9] (b) Write any three occasions when the ball is said to be out of play in the game of football. (c) When is a goal kick awarded and from where is it taken? (iii) Write the following: (a) Height of the corner flag. [8] (b) Height and width of the goal post. (c) Weight and circumference of the football. (d) Minimum and maximum number of players required to start a football match. Question 8 (i) Explain the following terms in football: (a) Offside [8] (b) Throw-In (c) Indirect Free kick (d) Additional time (ii) (a) How many substitutes are allowed in a football match? Write down the procedure of substitution during the game. [9] (b) State any three ways of restarting the play. (c) State any three fouls for which the referee can show a Red Card to the player. (iii) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of a football field showing the following measurements [8] (a) Length and breadth (b) Penalty area (c) Goal area (e) Penalty arc (d) Penalty mark (f) Centre circle (g) Corner arc BADMINTON Question 9 (i) Explain the following terms in Badminton: (a) Short serve (b) Clear lob (c) Alley (d) Lunge (ii) (a) Mention any three fundamental skills of a player in Badminton. (b) Name any three international tournaments in Badminton. (c) When is a 'Let' awarded in Badminton? Page 5 [8] [9] (iii) Write short notes on: (a) All (c) Types of grips [8] (b) Service judge (d) A carry Question 10 (i) Explain the following: (a) Rear court (b) Rally (c) Wood shot (d) Bird (ii) (a) Explain the scoring system in Badminton. (b) Names the types of games in Badminton. (c) State any three duties of an umpire in Badminton. (iii) Explain the following terms in Badminton: (a) Drop shot (b) Smash (c) Follow through (d) Service order BASKETBALL Question 11 (i) Explain the following terms in Basketball: (a) Alternating possession. (b) Free Throw. (c )Zone Defense. (d) Fake. [8] [9] [8] [8] (ii) (a) Write any three conditions when a team forfeits its right to play. (b)State any three duties of a scorer in a match. (c) Explain the skill of low dribble in basketball. [9] (iii) (a) In case of a tie, what is the procedure followed to break the tie in basketball? (b) Explain the term '24 second rule' in basketball match. (c) Write the full form of FIBA and BFI. (d) What is Double Dribble in Basketball? [8] Question 12 (i) Briefly explain the following terms in Basketball: (a) Eight second rule. (b) Dunk Shot. (c) Triple Threat. (d) Drive. [8] (ii) (a) State three occasions when the ball is considered to be dead during a play in basketball? [9] (b) Write any three duties of timekeeper in a match. (c) Explain the skill of 'chest pass' in basketball. (iii) (a) Write any two violations that may occur during the course of the game. (b) Explain the term 'Loose ball'. (c)What is the circumference and weight of the basketball ball? (d) Mention any two fundamental skills of basketball. Page 6 [8] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2025 26) SUBJECT: ECONOMICS Std: X Max Marks: 80 Date: 02/12/2025 Duration: 2h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. Section A (Attempt all questions from this section) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options: (Do not copy the questions, write the correct answers only) (i) Assertion(A): The central bank acts as a lender of the last resort. Reason (R): It provides loans to commercial banks during financial crisis to maintain stability in the financial system. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (ii) The image given below shows two products. Which product is likely to have more elastic demand? (a) (b) (c) (d) (iii) Milk Luxury perfume Both have the same elasticity Both have unit elasticity Capital is a (a) active (b) passive (c) inferior (d) permanent factor of production. [16] (iv) Assertion (A): Land is considered an active factor of production. Reason (R): Land cannot produce anything by itself without the help of labour and capital (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (v) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the price elasticity of demand shown in the diagrams? (a) (b) (c) (d) Diagram A represents elastic demand and Diagram B represents inelastic demand. Diagram A represents inelastic demand and Diagram B represents elastic demand. Both diagrams show unitary elastic demand. Both diagrams show perfectly inelastic demand. (vi) With reference to monopoly form of market, choose the odd one out. (a) Single seller (b) Price discrimination (c) Profit maximisation (d) Free entry and exit (vii) Name the type of inflation that causes total collapse of the monetary system. (a) Running inflation (b) Hyperinflation (c) Walking inflation (d) Creeping inflation (viii) Name the institution which is authorised to issue currency in India. (a) Canara Bank (b) State Bank of India (c) Union Parliament (d) Reserve Bank of India (ix) HDFC Bank is an example of (a) Public Sector Bank (b) Foreign Bank (c) Private Sector Bank (d) Cooperative Bank . (x) Which type of market is shown in the image given below? (a) (b) (c) (d) (xi) Perfect competition Monopoly Monopolistic competition Oiligopoly Assertion (A): The normative aspect of public finance focuses only on public revenue. Reason (R): It examines how the government can improve economic welfare through taxation and expenditure. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (xii) are those taxes whose burden can be shifted. (a) (b) (c) (d) Direct taxes. Indirect taxes. Freights. Fees (xiii) Revenue expenditure is (a) (b) (c) (d) (xiv) in nature. recurring non- recurring simple complex The Loans taken from World Bank is categorised as (a) (b) (c) (d) internal debt external debt voluntary debt compulsory debt . (xv) The symbol shown above is generally found on (a) agricultural goods (b) perishable goods (c) industrial goods (d) imported goods . The Law of Supply states that, other things being equal (a) supply increases when price decreases. (b) supply decreases when price increases. (c) supply increases when price increases. (d) supply remains constant regardless of price . (xvi) Question 2 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Mention any two factors that determine the productive capacity of land. [2] Define the Law of Demand and illustrate it with the help of a diagram. [2] Neha owns a car and needs petrol to drive to work every day. Even when the price of petrol rises, she continues to buy the same amount because she has no alternative mode of transport. What type of demand does Neha s behaviour represent and what will be the shape of the demand curve? [2] Mention two features of Perfect Competition market. [2] Question 3 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Mention any two drawbacks of barter system. What is an overdraft facility? Give an example. Define the concept of CRR and SLR. What are direct taxes? Give examples. [2] [2] [2] [2] Question 4 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the terms- Debt trap and Gross debt. State any two reasons behind the demonetisation decision in India. Mention any two features of inflation. You want to buy a pack of biscuits. How will you justify that you are an alert consumer while buying it from the market? Give two examples to support your answer. [2] [2] [2] [2] SECTION B (Attempt any four questions in this section) Question 5 (i) (ii) Explain the causes of low efficiency in India. [5] Riya decides to start a small bakery business. She invests her savings, hires skilled workers, purchases baking equipment and introduces new flavours of cakes to attract customers. She also takes the risk of running the business in a competitive market. Identify and explain the functions of an entrepreneur performed by Riya in the above case. [5] Question 6 (i) (ii) Discuss any five determinants of market demand. Define the concept of extension in supply. State the causes of increase in supply. [5] [5] Question 7 (i) (ii) Mr. X often visits McDonald s (Mac D) for burgers and fries, even though many other restaurants nearby sell similar fast-food items. He likes McDonald s because of its unique taste, attractive packaging, brand name and quick service. [5] (d) Identify the type of market in the above situation. (e) Mention any three features of this market with reference to the example. (f) How does McDonald s create product differentiation to attract customers? Define oligopoly market with an example. Explain any three types of oligopoly market. [5] Question 8 (i) (ii) Read the following Case Study carefully and answer the questions on the basis of the same: Rohit purchased a washing machine from a reputed electronic store in Delhi. The shopkeeper promised a two-year warranty. After six months, the machine stopped working. When Rohit contacted the shopkeeper, he refused to repair or replace it and said the warranty didn t cover such issues. Rohit then decided to approach the Consumer Forum for help. [5] (c) Which right of the consumer has been violated in this case? (d) Mention any four salient features of Consumer Protection Act 2019. Why are consumers exploited in India? [5] Question 9 (i) (ii) What is a fixed deposit? Distinguish between Current account and Savings bank account. What is credit creation? Explain three functions of a commercial bank. [5] [5] Question 10 (i) (ii) Explain any five features of money. Explain the causes of demand-pull inflation. [5] [5] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION - I (2025-2026) SUBJECT COMPUTER APPLICATIONS Std.: X Date: 11/12/2025 Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 2 h. Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. This Paper is divided into two Sections. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in the brackets []. SECTION A (40 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this Section.) Question 1 [20] Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) (i) (ii) (iii) Return data type of indexOf() & compareTo() is : (a) float, int (b) boolean, int (c) int, int (d) int, boolean What is the type of error, if two methods have the same method signature in Java? (a) Runtime error (b) Logical error (c) No error (d) Compile time error Assertion (A): A class can have multiple constructors. Reason (R): Multiple constructors are defined with the same set of arguments. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A (c) A is true but R is false (d) A is false but R is true This Paper consists of 8 printed pages (iv) For the strings "COP" and "cop", what is the output of: "COP".equals("cop") "COP".equalsIgnoreCase("cop") (v) (a) false, true (b) false, false (c) true, true (d) true, false What will be the output of the following code? int m = 2; int n = 15; for(int i = 1; i < 5; i++); m++; --n; System.out.print("m = " + m); System.out.print("n = " + n); (vi) (vii) (viii) (a) m=7 n=14 (b) m=6 n=13 (c) m=6 n=14 (d) m=3 n=14 To replace the letter E with # in a string S, which is the correct statement? (a) S.replace('#','E') (b) S.replace('E') (c) S.replace('E', '#') (d) S.replace('#') Which of the following is a valid initialization statement? (a) int x = "GOOD"; (b) int y = 45.0 / 2; (c) int z = (int) 'x'; (d) int m = false; Identify which of the following leads to an infinite loop: (a) for (i = 10; i != 0; i--) (b) for (i = 3; i <= 30; i += 3) (c) for (i = 1; i >= 1; i++) (d) for (i = 1; i >= 0; i--) 2 of 7 (ix) (x) The output of "SOLDIER".compareTo("SOLUTE") is: (a) -4 (b) -17 (c) 17 (d) 0 Which statement is equivalent to: if (a > b) System.out.println("Honest"); else System.out.println("Sincere"); (xi) (a) a > b ? System.out.println("Honest") : System.out.println("Sincere"); (b) System.out.println(a > b ? "Honest" : "Sincere"); (c) a > b ? "Honest" : "Sincere"; (d) a > b: "Honest"? "Sincere"; Consider: int a[] = {20, 40, 60, 80, 100}; The sum of a[1] and a[3] is: (xii) (a) 100 (b) 80 (c) 120 (d) 60 In a 2D array named P, given: P = { { "Mouse", "Keyboard", "Printer" }, { "Scanner", "Barcode Scanner", "Microphone" } } What is the index for "Barcode Scanner"? (xiii) (a) P[0][1] (b) P[1][1] (c) P[2][0] (d) P[0][0] Which of the following operators has the highest precedence? (a) && (b) + (c) * (d) = (xiv) (xv) (xvi) (xvii) (xviii) (xix) Which of the following can call a static method directly? (a) Class name (b) Object of the class (c) Variable name (d) Method name Which of the following cannot be used as a switch expression in Java? (a) int (b) char (c) float (d) String In an if statement, the condition must be: (a) int (b) boolean (c) float (d) String Which of the following loops is guaranteed to execute at least once? (a) for (b) while (c) do while (d) if The output of Math.ceil(6.2) is: (a) 7.0 (b) 7 (c) 6.0 (d) 6 What will Character.isUpperCase('M') return? (a) M (b) m (c) true (d) 77 Which of the following is a valid java keyword? (a) If (b) static (c) BOOLEAN (d) Switch Question 2 (i) How does a float literal differ from a double literal in Java? [2] (ii) What is the difference between a break statement and a continue statement when they [2] occur in a loop? (iii) How many times will the following loop execute? What value will be returned? [2] int x = 2, y = 50; do{ ++x; y -= x++; }while(x <= 10); return y; (iv) Write a Java expression for: [2] S = ut + 1 2 2 (v) If int n[] = {1, 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 13, 16}, what are the values of x and y? [2] x = Math.pow(n[4], n[2]); y = Math.sqrt(n[5] + n[7]); (vi) What is the final value of ctr when the following code gets executed? [2] int ctr = 0; for(int i = 1; i <= 5; i++) for(int j = 1; j <= 5; j += 2) ++ctr; (vii) What is the result stored in x, after evaluating the following expression? [2] int x = 5; x = x++ * 2 + 3 * --x; (viii) Write the difference between length and length(). [2] (ix) Analyze the following program segment and determine how many times the loop will be [2] executed and what will be the output of the program segment. int k = 1, i = 2; while(++i < 6) k *= i; System.out.println(k); (x) Write the prototype of a function check which receives a character ch and an integer n and returns true or false. [2] SECTION B (60 Marks) (Attempt any four questions from this Section.) The answers in this section consists of the Programs in either BlueJ environment or any program environment with Java as the Base. Each program should be written using Variable descriptions so that the logic of the program is clearly depicted. Flowcharts and Algorithms are not required. Question 3 [15] Define a class named BookFair with the following description: Instance variables/Data members: String Bname stores the name of the book double price stores the price of the book Member methods: (i) BookFair() Default constructor to initialize data members (ii) void Input() To input and store the name and the price of the book. (iii) void calculate() To calculate the price after discount. Discount is calculated based on the following criteria. Price Discount Less than or equal to 1000 2% of price More than 1000 and less than or equal to 3000 10% of price More than 3000 15% of price (iv) void display() To display the name and price of the book after discount. Write a main method to create an object of the class and call the above member methods. [15] Question 4 Special words are those words which start and end with the same letter. Example: EXISTENCE, COMIC, WINDOW Palindrome words are those words which read the same from left to right and vice-versa. Example: MALYALAM, MADAM, LEVEL, ROTATOR, CIVIC All palindromes are special words but all special words are not palindromes. Write a program to accept a word. Check and display whether the word is a palindrome or only a special word or none of them. [15] Question 5 Design a class to overload a function sumSeries() as follows: (i) void sumSeries(int n, double x): with one integer argument and one double argument to find and display the sum of the series given below: S = + . 1 2 3 4 (ii) void sumSeries(): to find and display the sum of the following series: S = 1 + (1 X 2) + (1 X 2 X3) + ( 1 X 2 X 3 X 4) + (1 X 2 X 3 X 4 Question 6 Write a program to initialize the seven Wonders of the World along with their locations in two different arrays. Search for a name of the country input by the user. If found, display the name of the country along with its Wonder, otherwise display "Sorry not found!". Seven Wonders: CHICHEN ITZA, CHRIST THE REDEEMER, TAJ MAHAL, GREAT WALL OF CHINA, MACHU PICCHU, PETRA, COLOSSEUM Locations: MEXICO, BRAZIL, INDIA, CHINA, PERU, JORDAN, ITALY Examples: Country name: INDIA Output: TAJ MAHAL Country name: USA Output: Sorry Not found! Question 7 Write a program to input twenty names in an array. Arrange these names in descending order of letters, using the bubble sort technique. Question 8 The International Standard Book Number (ISBN) is a unique numeric book identifier which is printed on every book. The ISBN is based upon a 10-digit code. Example: For an ISBN 1401601499 Sum = 1 1 + 2 4 + 3 0 + 4 1 + 5 6 + 6 0 + 7 1 + 8 4 + 9 9 + 10 9 = 253 which is divisible by 11. It is legal. Write a program to: Input the ISBN code as a 10-digit integer. If the ISBN is not a 10-digit integer, output the message "Illegal ISBN" and terminate the program. If the number is divisible by 11, output the message "Legal ISBN". If the sum is not divisible by 11, output the message "Illegal ISBN". PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2025-2026) SUBJECT ROBOTICS AND ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE Std.: X Max. Marks: 100 Date: 11/12/2025 Duration: 2 h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. This Paper is divided into two Sections Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (40 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this section.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) (i) [20] Which type of AI model learns from labeled data? (a) Unsupervised Learning (b) Reinforcement Learning (c) Supervised Learning (d) Deep Learning (ii) Which of the following is an example of an assistant robot? (a) Roomba (b) Pepper (c) Da Vinci Surgical System (d) Kiva (iii) Cybersecurity threats can lead to degradation of work by: (a) Improving collaboration (b) Enhancing productivity (c) Disrupting systems and causing data loss (d) Increasing system speed (iv) Which statement is valid for deleting an entire tuple t? (a) del t[0] (b) remove(t) (c) del t (d) t.clear() (v) What does 'Python'[1:4] return? (a) yth (b) Pyt (c) tho (d) ytho (vi) Which keyword is used to include a module in Python? (a) include (b) define (c) import (d) module This Paper consists of 6 printed pages. Turn over (vii) An automated system differs from an autonomous system because it: (a) Learns from experience (b) Operates independently without any programming (c) Uses AI to make decisions (d) Follows pre-defined rules without adapting (viii) Assertion (A): Deployment is the final step in the AI project cycle. Reason (R) : It involves collecting data from various sources. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion(A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion(A) (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true (ix) What will be the output of the following code? X = Examination .find( z ) print(X) (a) 0 (b) -1 (c) none (d) error (x) Cobots are designed to: (a) Replace humans entirely in all tasks. (b) Work safely alongside humans in shared environments (c) Operate only in isolated industrial zones (d) Function without any programming (xi) Which of the following is a primary function of gears in robots? (a) Power generation (b) Speed regulation (c) Data transmission (d) Signal amplification (xii) Which of the following is an example of an internal sensor? (a) Infrared sensor (b) Accelerometer (c) Ultrasonic sensor (d) Light sensor (xiii) Which method is used to add multiple elements to a list? (a) append() (b) insert() (c) extend() (d) index() 2 of 6 (xiv) Which operator is used to concatenate two strings? (a) * (b) + (c) - (d) / (xv) What does Param Super Computer .count('p') return? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (xvi) The 4Ws problem canvas includes all EXCEPT: (a) Who (b) Why (c) What (d) When (xvii) Assertion (A): Lists in Python are immutable. Reason (R) : Lists allow modification of elements after creation. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion(A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion(A) (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true (xviii) Human decision-making is influenced by: (a) Only data (b) Emotions, experience, and intuition (c) Algorithms (d) Sensor inputs (xix) NARS are characterized by: (a) Manual control and limited intelligence (b) Use in only industrial setting (c) Advanced AI integration and autonomy (d) Lack of sensors and actuators (xx) Assertion (A): Warehouse robots improve efficiency in logistics operations. Reason (R) : They can autonomously navigate and transport goods using sensors and mapping technologies. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion(A) (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion(A) (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true 3 of 6 Question 2 (i) Give two real-life examples of Smart Home Robots [2] (ii) Examine the provided image, determine the gear type, and describe its key characteristic. [2] (iii) What is Tinkercad? Explain how it is commonly used. [2] (iv) For each example below, specify whether it represents an autonomous system or an automated system. Give reason. [2] (a) Traffic Light (b) Mars Rovers (v) Describe any two types of Computer fraud. [2] (vi) Predict the output of the following: [2] print( It\ s a Python \t Programming \n Language ) (vii) Predict the output of the following code: [2] def Calc(num): return(num**3) for i in range(3): y=Calc(i) print(y) (viii) Write the output of the following code: [2] x = [5,17,9,3,10] x[3]=15 x.sort(reverse=True) print(x) (ix) What will be the output from the code given below: [2] list_item = [ Pune , Mumbai , Kolkata ] list_item.append([ Delhi , Chennai ]) print (list_item, length= ,len(list_item)) (x) What would be the output of the following code? list1=[ Rohan , Akshat , Gourav ] new_list = , .join(list1) print(new_list) print(type(new_list)) 4 of 6 [2] SECTION B(60 marks) (Answer any four questions from this Section.) The answers in this section should consist of the programs in either python environment or any program environment with python as the base. Each program should be written using variable description / mnemonic codes so that the logic of the program is clearly depicted. Flowcharts and algorithms are not required. Question 3 What are the three different types of drones, and how do they differ in design and usage? [3] (ii) What is the role of sensors in robotics? Name a type of sensor used in (a) Air conditioners and (b) Surveillance system [3] (iii) Write Write a python program that perform the following operations on a list of integers. [9] (i) (1) Create a list of the integers: [75, 23, 45, 67,12, 60] (2) Sort the list in ascending order. (3) Append integer 90 to the list. (4) Insert integer 55 at index 3 (5) Delete integer 60 from the list. (6) Print the final list. Question 4 (i) How does human intelligence differ from machine intelligence? Explain with three points. (ii) Based on the picture given below, answer the following questions: [3] [3] (a) Identify the AI model (b) Explain the model in brief (iii) Special words are those words which start and end with the same letter. [9] Examples : EXISTENCE, COMIC, WINDOW. Palindrome words are those words which read the same from left to right and vice-versa. Examples : MALAYALAM, MADAM, LEVEL, ROTATOR. All palindrome words are special words but all special words are not palindromes. Write a python program to input a word and check whether it is a palindrome word or only a special word. 5 of 6 Question 5 (i) Describe linear actuators and rotary actuators. Give an example for each. (ii) Draw the block diagram of a robot. [3] [3] (iii) Write a Python program using Matplotlib to create a pie chart that shows the percentage of marks obtained in the subjects English, Maths, Science, History, and Geography. Add appropriate labels for each subject and display the title Percentage on the chart. [9] Question 6 (i) Name the different types of robotic joints. Describe RR mechanism [3] (ii) What are the different components of AI project cycle? Describe any one. [3] (iii) Write a Python program that inputs two numbers and checks whether they form a twin prime pair or not. Define a user-defined function isPrime(n) that returns True if n is a prime number and False otherwise. A pair of numbers is called twin primes if both numbers are prime and their difference is exactly 2. Example: (3, 5), (5, 7), and (11, 13). [9] Question 7 (i) Write any three benefits of using a smart school robot. (ii) Differentiate between machines and robots [3] [3] (iii) Write a python program to solve the following system of linear equations by using scipy library: 2x + y = 5 3x + 4y = 6 [9] Question 8 (i) What is turing test? Suppose two chatbots, A and B, both respond to users in natural language. Chatbot A answers faster but with more generic replies, while Chatbot B is slower but gives more context-aware answers. Based on Turing Test principles, which one is more likely to pass and why? [3] (ii) What are the various ethical concerns related to data theft [3] (iii) Write a Python program that performs the following operations: (1) Create a tuple with elements (10, 20, 30, 40, 50) (2) Print the first and last elements of the tuple. (3) Find and print the length of the tuple. (4) Check whether the number 30 exists in the tuple. (5) Print the index of element 40. (6) Convert tuple to list (7) Print the list 6 of 6 [9]

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