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PAPER-I Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................ (To be filled by the Candidate) Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ D 00 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 11 Time : 1 1/4 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Test Booklet Code Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. W-00 W [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 1. 2. - (60) , (50) 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) - OMR OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : A B C D (C) 5. - I - II - , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. - , , , , , 9. - OMR - 10. / 11. ( ) 12. P.T.O. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY 1 21 41 2 22 42 3 23 24 43 44 6 25 26 45 46 7 27 8 9 28 47 48 29 49 10 30 50 11 31 51 12 13 32 33 52 53 14 34 54 15 35 55 16 36 56 17 18 19 37 38 57 58 39 40 Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained 59 60 4 5 20 Total Marks Obtained (in words) ........................................... (in figures) .......................................... Signature & Name of the Coordinator ................................... (Evaluation) W-00 Date ......................... 2 Paper I I Note : : 1. 2. 3. 4. (60) (2) (50) (50) (50) Photo bleeding means 1. (A) Photo cropping (A) (B) Photo placement (B) (C) Photo cutting (C) (D) Photo colour adjustment (D) While designing communication 2. strategy feed-forward studies are ? conducted by (A) Audience (A) (B) Communicator (B) (C) Satellite (C) (D) Media (D) In which language the newspapers 3. have highest circulation ? ? (A) English (B) Hindi (A) (B) (C) Bengali (D) Tamil (C) (D) Aspect ratio of TV Screen is 4. . . (A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 5. This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions. In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated. 2:3 (A) 4 : 3 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 4 Communication with oneself is known as (A) Organisational Communication (B) Grapewine Communication (C) Interpersonal Communication (D) Intrapersonal Communication 6. The term SITE stands for (A) Satellite Indian Television Experiment (B) Satellite International Television Experiment (C) Satellite Instructional Television Experiment (D) Satellite Instructional Teachers Education 7. 5. What is the number that comes next in the sequence ? 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___ (A) 76 (B) 74 (C) 75 (D) 50 W-00 6. 7. (B) 3 : 4 (D) 2 : 4 - (A) (B) (C) (D) : SITE (A) (B) (C) (D) ? 2, 5, 9, 19, 37, ___ (A) 76 (B) 74 (C) 75 (D) 50 3 P.T.O. 8. 9. 10. Find the next letter for the series MPSV.. (A) X (B) Y (C) Z (D) A 8. MPSV .. ? (A) X (C) Z If 367 means I am happy ; 748 means you are sad and 469 means happy and sad in a given code, then which of the following represents and in that code ? (A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4 9. 367 ; 748 469 ? (A) 3 (C) 9 The basis of the following classification is animal , man , house , book , and student : (A) Definite descriptions (B) Proper names (C) Descriptive phrases (D) Common names (B) Y (D) A (B) 6 (D) 4 12. W-00 11. Assertion (A) : The coin when flipped next time will come up tails. Reason (R) : Because the coin was flipped five times in a row, and each time it came up heads. Choose the correct answer from below : (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (B) Both (A) and (R) are false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is false, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). The relation is a sister of is (A) non-symmetrical (B) symmetrical (C) asymmetrical (D) transitive 4 : , , , (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) : (tails) (R) : (heads) : (A) (A) (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) (R) (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) , (R), (A) (D) (A) , (R) , (R), (A) 12. 11. 10. (A) - (B) (C) (D) 13. If the proposition Vegetarians are not meat eaters is false, then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the codes given below : 1. All vegetarians are eaters is doubtful. 3. Some vegetarians are not meat eaters is true. 4. Some vegetarians are not meat eaters is doubtful. meat Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4 14. Determine the nature following definition : of , ? : 1. 2. 3. 4. : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 2, 3 4 (C) 1, 3 4 (D) 1, 2 4 Some vegetarians are meat eaters is true. 2. 13. the 14. ` 10,000 (A) (B) (C) (D) 15. ? (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) , Poor means having an annual income of ` 10,000. (A) persuasive (C) 15. (B) (D) stipulative lexical precising Which one of the following is not an argument ? (A) If today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday. (B) Since today is Tuesday, tomorrow will be Wednesday. (C) Ram insulted me so I punched him in the nose. (D) Ram is not at home, so he must have gone to town. W-00 5 P.T.O. 16. 17. Inductive logic studies the way in which a premise may (A) support and entail a conclusion (B) not support but entail a conclusion (C) neither support nor entail a conclusion (D) support a conclusion without entailing it 18. Which of the following statements are true ? Choose from the codes given below. 1. Some arguments, while not completely valid, are almost valid. 2. A sound argument may be invalid. 3. A cogent argument may have a probably false conclusion. 4. A statement may be true or false. Codes : (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 3 and 4 (C) 4 alone (D) 3 and 4 19. , (A) (B) (C) , (D) , 17. , (A) (B) , (C) , (D) , 18. ? 1. : , 2. 3. : 4. : (A) 1 2 (B) 1, 3 4 (C) 4 (D) 3 4 19. 40% , Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to (A) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes. (B) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes. (C) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes. (D) assess but not represent the validity of elementary inferences with the help of Boolean Algebra of classes. If the side of the square increases by 40%, then the area of the square increases by (A) 60 % (B) 40 % (C) 196 % (D) 96 % W-00 16. (A) 60 % (C) 196 % 6 (B) 40 % (D) 96 % 20. 21. 22. There are 10 lamps in a hall. Each one of them can be switched on independently. The number of ways in which hall can be illuminated is (A) 102 (B) 1023 10 (C) 2 (D) 10 ! 20. (A) 102 (C) 210 21. How many numbers between 100 and 300 begin or end with 2 ? (A) 100 (B) 110 (C) 120 (D) 180 22. In a college having 300 students, every student reads 5 newspapers and every newspaper is read by 60 students. The number of newspapers required is (A) at least 30 (B) at most 20 (C) exactly 25 (D) exactly 5 24. W-00 (B) 1023 (D) 10 ! 100 300 2 ? (A) 100 (C) 120 The total CO2 emissions from various sectors are 5 mmt. In the Pie Chart given below, the percentage contribution to CO2 emissions from various sectors is indicated. 23. 10 ? (B) 110 (D) 180 300 5 60 ? (A) 30 (B) 20 (C) 25 (D) 5 CO2 5 mmt , CO2 What is the absolute CO2 emission from domestic sector ? (A) 1.5 mmt (B) 2.5 mmt (C) 1.75 mmt (D) 0.75 mmt 23. CO2 ? (A) 1.5 mmt (C) 1.75 mmt What is the absolute CO2 emission for combined thermal power and transport sectors ? (A) 3.25 mmt (B) 1.5 mmt (C) 2.5 mmt (D) 4 mmt 24. CO2 ? (A) 3.25 mmt (C) 2.5 mmt 7 (B) 2.5 mmt (D) 0.75 mmt (B) 1.5 mmt (D) 4 mmt P.T.O. ( 23 24) For Blind Students Only (Questions 23 24) 23. Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency ? (A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Range 23. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 24. In a normally distributed data set, what percentage of data points lie between mean standard deviation ? (A) ~ 67 % (B) ~ 50% (C) ~ 97 % (D) ~ 37% 24. + ? Which of the following operating system is used on mobile phones ? (A) Windows Vista (B) Android (C) Windows XP (D) All of the above 25. ? (A) (B) (C) XP (D) 26. x (y)x y , ? 25. 26. 27. (A) ~ 67 % (C) ~ 97 % If (y)x represents a number y in base x, then which of the following numbers is smallest of all ? (A) (1111)2 (B) (1111)8 (C) (1111)10 (D) (1111)16 (A) (1111)2 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 28. ( . . . .) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 29. The term DNS stands for (A) Domain Name System (B) Defense Nuclear System (C) Downloadable New Software (D) Dependent Name Server W-00 (D) (1111)16 (1111)10 (1111)8 27. DNS ( . . .) (A) (B) (C) (D) HTML is used to create (A) machine language program (B) high level program (C) web page (D) web server 29. (B) (C) High level programming language can be converted to machine language using which of the following ? (A) Oracle (B) Compiler (C) Mat lab (D) Assembler 28. (B) ~ 50% (D) ~ 37% 8 HTML 30. IPv4 and IPv6 are addresses used to identify computers on the internet. Find the correct statement out of the following : (A) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is more than number of bits required for IPv6 address. (B) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is same as number of bits required for IPv6 address. (C) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is less than number of bits required for IPv6 address. (D) Number of bits required for IPv4 address is 64. 30. IPv6 ( ) , : (A) IPv4 IPv6 (B) IPv4 IPv6 (C) IPv4 IPv6 (D) IPv4 64 31. Which of the following pollutants affects the respiratory tract in humans ? (A) Carbon monoxide (B) Nitric oxide (C) Sulphur di-oxide (D) Aerosols 31. ? (A) - (B) (C) (D) 32. Which of the following pollutants is not emitted from the transport sector ? (A) Oxides of nitrogen (B) Chlorofluorocarbons (C) Carbon monoxide (D) Poly aromatic hydrocarbons 32. ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) 33. Which of the following sources of energy has the maximum potential in India ? (A) Solar energy (B) Wind energy (C) Ocean thermal energy (D) Tidal energy 33. ( ) ? (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) W-00 9 IPv4 P.T.O. 34. 35. ? (A) (B) (C) - (D) 36. ? (A) (B) (C) CO2 (D) 37. (A) (B) (C) (D) 38. Ecological footprint represents (A) area of productive land and water to meet the resources requirement (B) energy consumption (C) CO2 emissions per person ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 35. Which of the following is not a natural hazard ? (A) Earthquake (B) Tsunami (C) Flash floods (D) Nuclear accident 36. 34. Which of the following is not a source of pollution in soil ? (A) Transport sector (B) Agriculture sector (C) Thermal power plants (D) Hydropower plants : (D) forest cover 37. 38. 39. W-00 The aim of value education to inculcate in students is (A) the moral values (B) the social values (C) the political values (D) the economic values Indicate the number of Regional Offices of University Grants Commission of India. (A) 10 (B) 07 (C) 08 (D) 09 (A) 10 (C) 08 One-rupee currency note in India bears the signature of (A) The President of India (B) Finance Minister of India (C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (D) Finance Secretary of Government of India 39. 10 (B) 07 (D) 09 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. I II , : I II ( ) ( ) (i) 2005 (a) (ii) 1962 (b) . I (c) . (iii) 1966 (iv) 1953 (d) : Match the List I with the List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List I List II (Commissions and (Year) Committees) (a) First (i) 2005 Administrative Reforms Commission (b) Paul H. Appleby (ii) 1962 Committee I (c) K. Santhanam (iii) 1966 Committee (iv) 1953 (d) Second Administrative Reforms Commission Codes : (a) (b) (c) (d) (A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) 40. 41. Constitutionally the registration and recognition of political parties is the function performed by (A) The State Election Commission of respective States (B) The Law Ministry of Government of India (C) The Election Commission of India (D) Election Department of the State Governments 41. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 42. The members of Gram Sabha are (A) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and all elected Panchas (B) Sarpanch, Upsarpanch and Village level worker (C) Sarpanch, Gram Sevak and elected Panchas (D) Registered voters of Village Panchayat 42. (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) W-00 (a) (c) (d) (A) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (C) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (D) 11 (b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) P.T.O. 43. 43. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. , (A) - (B) (C) (D) 45. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 46. By which of the following methods the true evaluation of the students is possible ? ? (A) (B) ( ) (C) - ( ) (D) (A) Evaluation at the end of the course. (B) Evaluation twice in a year. (C) Continuous evaluation. (D) Formative evaluation. 44. Suppose a student wants to share his problems with his teacher and he visits the teacher s house for the purpose, the teacher should (A) contact the student s parents and solve his problem. (B) suggest him that he should never visit his house. (C) suggest him to meet the principal and solve the problem. (D) extend reasonable help and boost his morale. 45. When some students are deliberately attempting to disturb the discipline of the class by making mischief, what will be your role as a teacher ? (A) Expelling those students. (B) Isolate those students. (C) Reform the group with your authority. (D) Giving them an opportunity for introspection and improve their behaviour. 46. Which of the following belongs to a projected aid ? (A) Blackboard (C) W-00 (B) (D) Globe Epidiascope Diorama 12 47. A teacher is said to be fluent in asking questions, if he can ask (A) meaningful questions (B) as many questions as possible (C) maximum number of questions in a fixed time (D) many meaningful questions in a fixed time 48. Which of the following qualities is most essential for a teacher ? (A) He should be a learned person. (B) He should be a well dressed person. (C) He should have patience. (D) He should be an expert in his subject. 49. A hypothesis is a (A) law (C) postulate 47. 48. 49. (B) canon (D) supposition 50. Suppose you want to investigate the working efficiency of nationalised bank in India, which one of the following would you follow ? (A) Area Sampling (B) Multi-stage Sampling (C) Sequential Sampling (D) Quota Sampling 51. Controlled group condition applied in (A) Survey Research (B) Historical Research (C) Experimental Research (D) Descriptive Research 52. Workshops are meant for (A) giving lectures (B) multiple target groups (C) showcase new theories (D) hands on training/experience 53. 50. Which one of the following is a research tool ? (A) Graph (B) Illustration (C) Questionnaire (D) Diagram 54. W-00 51. is 52. 53. 54. Research is not considered ethical if it (A) tries to prove a particular point. (B) does not ensure privacy and anonymity of the respondent. (C) does not investigate the data scientifically. (D) is not of a very high standard. 13 ( ) , : (A) (B) (C) (D) ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) - (C) (D) ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) ? (A) (B) - (C) (D) / ? (A) ( ) (B) (C) (D) (A) ( ) (B) (C) (D) P.T.O. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (Qn. Nos. 55 to 60) : The catalytic fact of the twentieth century is uncontrollable development, consumerist society, political materialism, and spiritual devaluation. This inordinate development has led to the transcendental second reality of sacred perception that biologically transcendence is a part of human life. As the century closes, it dawns with imperative vigour that the first reality of enlightened rationalism and the second reality of the Beyond have to be harmonised in a worthy state of man. The de facto values describe what we are, they portray the is of our ethic, they are est values (Latin est means is). The ideal values tell us what we ought to be, they are esto values (Latin esto ought to be ). Both have to be in the ebb and flow of consciousness. The ever new science and technology and the ever-perennial faith are two modes of one certainty, that is the wholeness of man, his courage to be, his share in Being. The materialistic foundations of science have crumbled down. Science itself has proved that matter is energy, processes are as valid as facts, and affirmed the non-materiality of the universe. The encounter of the two cultures , the scientific and the humane, will restore the normal vision, and will be the bedrock of a science of understanding in the new century. It will give new meaning to the ancient perception that quantity (measure) and quality (value) coexist at the root of nature. Human endeavours cannot afford to be humanistically irresponsible. 55. The problem raised in the passage reflects overall on (A) Consumerism (B) Materialism (C) Spiritual devaluation (D) Inordinate development 56. The de facto values in the passage means (A) What is (B) What ought to be (C) What can be (D) Where it is 57. According to the passage, the first reality constitutes (A) Economic prosperity (B) Political development (C) Sacred perception of life (D) Enlightened rationalism 58. Encounter of the two cultures , the scientific and the human implies (A) Restoration of normal vision (B) Universe is both material and non-material (C) Man is superior to nature (D) Co-existence of quantity and quality in nature 59. The contents of the passage are (A) Descriptive (C) Axiomatic 60. (B) Prescriptive (D) Optional The passage indicates that science has proved that (A) universe is material (B) matter is energy (C) nature has abundance (D) humans are irresponsible W-00 14 . 55 60 : , , , , , , ( ) , ( ) , , , , , - : 55. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 56. (A) (C) (B) (D) 57. , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. (A) (B) - (C) , (D) - 59. (A) (C) : 60. (B) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) ___________ W-00 15 P.T.O. Space For Rough Work W-00 16

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