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ICSE Class X Board Exam 2018 : History and Civics and Geography

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Analysis of Pupil Performance ICSE HISTORY, CIVICS & GEOGRAPHY Research Development and Consultancy Division Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations New Delhi Year 2018 __________________________________________________________________________________ Published by: Research Development and Consultancy Division (RDCD) Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations Pragati House, 3rd Floor 47-48, Nehru Place New Delhi-110019 Tel: (011) 26413820/26411706 E-mail: council@cisce.org Copyright, Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations All rights reserved. The copyright to this publication and any part thereof solely vests in the Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations. This publication and no part thereof may be reproduced, transmitted, distributed or stored in any manner whatsoever, without the prior written approval of the Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations. FOREWORD This document of the Analysis of Pupils Performance at the ISC Year 12 and ICSE Year 10 Examination is one of its kind. It has grown and evolved over the years to provide feedback to schools in terms of the strengths and weaknesses of the candidates in handling the examinations. We commend the work of Mrs. Shilpi Gupta (Deputy Head) of the Research Development and Consultancy Division (RDCD) of the Council and her team, who have painstakingly prepared this analysis. We are grateful to the examiners who have contributed through their comments on the performance of the candidates under examination as well as for their suggestions to teachers and students for the effective transaction of the syllabus. We hope the schools will find this document useful. We invite comments from schools on its utility and quality. Gerry Arathoon Chief Executive & Secretary October 2018 i PREFACE The Council has been involved in the preparation of the ICSE and ISC Analysis of Pupil Performance documents since the year 1994. Over these years, these documents have facilitated the teaching-learning process by providing subject/ paper wise feedback to teachers regarding performance of students at the ICSE and ISC Examinations. With the aim of ensuring wider accessibility to all stakeholders, from the year 2014, the ICSE and the ISC documents have been made available on the Council s website www.cisce.org. The documents include a detailed qualitative analysis of the performance of students in different subjects which comprises of examiners comments on common errors made by candidates, topics found difficult or confusing, marking scheme for each answer and suggestions for teachers/ candidates. In addition to a detailed qualitative analysis, the Analysis of Pupil Performance documents for the Examination Year 2018 have a component of a detailed quantitative analysis. For each subject dealt with in the document, both at the ICSE and the ISC levels, a detailed statistical analysis has been done, which has been presented in a simple user-friendly manner. It is hoped that this document will not only enable teachers to understand how their students have performed with respect to other students who appeared for the ICSE/ISC Year 2018 Examinations, but also provide information on how they have performed within the Region or State, their performance as compared to other Regions or States, etc. It will also help develop a better understanding of the assessment/ evaluation process. This will help teachers in guiding their students more effectively and comprehensively so that students prepare for the ICSE/ ISC Examinations, with a better understanding of what is required from them. The Analysis of Pupil Performance document for ICSE for the Examination Year 2018 covers the following subjects: English (English Language, Literature in English), Hindi, History, Civics and Geography (History and Civics, Geography), Mathematics, Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology), Commercial Studies, Economics, Computer Applications, Economic Applications, Commercial Applications. Subjects covered in the ISC Analysis of Pupil Performance document for the Year 2018 include English (English Language and Literature in English), Hindi, Elective English, Physics (Theory), Chemistry (Theory), Biology (Theory), Mathematics, Computer Science, History, Political Science, Geography, Sociology, Psychology, Economics, Commerce, Accounts and Business Studies. I would like to acknowledge the contribution of all the ICSE and the ISC examiners who have been an integral part of this exercise, whose valuable inputs have helped put this document together. I would also like to thank the RDCD team of, Dr. M.K. Gandhi, Dr. Manika Sharma, Mrs. Roshni George and Mrs. Mansi Guleria who have done a commendable job in preparing this document. Shilpi Gupta Deputy Head - RDCD October 2018 ii CONTENTS Page No. FOREWORD i PREFACE ii INTRODUCTION 1 QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS HISTORY, CIVICS & GEOGRAPHY 3 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS History and Civics (H.C.G.- Paper-1) 10 Geography (H.C.G.- Paper-2) 30 INTRODUCTION This document aims to provide a comprehensive picture of the performance of candidates in the subject. It comprises of two sections, which provide Quantitative and Qualitative analysis results in terms of performance of candidates in the subject for the ICSE Year 2018 Examination. The details of the Quantitative and the Qualitative analysis are given below. Quantitative Analysis This section provides a detailed statistical analysis of the following: Overall Performance of candidates in the subject (Statistics at a Glance) State wise Performance of Candidates Gender wise comparison of Overall Performance Region wise comparison of Performance Comparison of Region wise performance on the basis of Gender Comparison of performance in different Mark Ranges and comparison on the basis of Gender for the top and bottom ranges Comparison of performance in different Grade categories and comparison on the basis of Gender for the top and bottom grades The data has been presented in the form of means, frequencies and bar graphs. Understanding the tables Each of the comparison tables shows N (Number of candidates), Mean Marks obtained, Standard Errors and t-values with the level of significance. For t-test, mean values compared with their standard errors indicate whether an observed difference is likely to be a true difference or whether it has occurred by chance. The t-test has been applied using a confidence level of 95%, which means that if a difference is marked as statistically significant (with * mark, refer to t-value column of the table), the probability of the difference occurring by chance is less than 5%. In other words, we are 95% confident that the difference between the two values is true. t-test has been used to observe significant differences in the performance of boys and girls, gender wise differences within regions (North, East, South and West), gender wise differences within marks ranges (Top and bottom ranges) and gender wise differences within grades awarded (Grade 1 and Grade 9) at the ICSE Year 2018 Examination. The analysed data has been depicted in a simple and user-friendly manner. 1 Given below is an example showing the comparison tables used in this section and the manner in which they should be interpreted. The table shows comparison between the performances of boys and girls in a particular subject. The t-value of 11.91 is significant at Comparison on the basis of Gender Gender Girls Boys *Significant at 0.05 level N 2,538 1,051 Mean 66.1 60.1 SE 0.29 0.42 t-value 11.91* 0.05 level (mentioned below the table) with a mean of girls as 66.1 and that of boys as 60.1. It means that there is significant difference between the performance of boys and girls in the subject. The probability of this difference occurring by chance is less than 5%. The mean value of girls is higher than that of boys. It can be interpreted that girls are performing significantly better than boys. The results have also been depicted pictographically. In this case, the girls performed significantly better than the boys. This is depicted by the girl with a medal. Qualitative Analysis The purpose of the qualitative analysis is to provide insights into how candidates have performed in individual questions set in the question paper. This section is based on inputs provided by examiners from examination centres across the country. It comprises of question wise feedback on the performance of candidates in the form of Comments of Examiners on the common errors made by candidates along with Suggestions for Teachers to rectify/ reduce these errors. The Marking Scheme for each question has also been provided to help teachers understand the criteria used for marking. Topics in the question paper that were generally found to be difficult or confusing by candidates, have also been listed down, along with general suggestions for candidates on how to prepare for the examination/ perform better in the examination. 2 QUANTITATIVE ANALYSIS STATISTICS AT A GLANCE Total Number of Candidates: 1,83,325 Highest Marks: 100 Mean Marks: Lowest Marks: 02 74.1 3 PERFORMANCE (STATE-WISE & FOREIGN) West Bengal Uttarakhand Uttar Pradesh Tripura Telangana Tamil Nadu Sikkim Rajasthan Punjab Puducherry Odisha New Delhi Nagaland Meghalaya Manipur Maharashtra Madhya Pradesh Kerala Karnataka Jharkhand Himachal Pradesh Haryana Gujarat Goa Chhattisgarh Chandigarh Bihar Assam Arunachal Pradesh Andhra Pradesh Foreign 72.5 70.6 69.3 69.1 76.8 80.2 67.1 75.4 70.9 76.5 71.5 71.6 71.2 72.4 68.7 84.1 69.1 80.0 80.2 71.7 73.6 77.5 72.9 85.0 67.1 79.1 75.3 81.1 57.9 74.0 86.4 The States of Goa, Maharashtra and Assam secured highest mean marks. Mean marks secured by candidates studying in schools abroad were 86.4. 4 GENDER-WISE COMPARISON GIRLS BOYS Mean Marks: 75.3 Mean Marks: 73.1 Number of Number of Candidates: 83,007 Candidates: 1,00,318 Comparison on the basis of Gender Gender Girls Boys N Mean SE t-value 83,007 1,00,318 75.3 73.1 0.06 0.06 26.63* *Significant at 0.05 level Girls performed significantly better than boys. 5 REGION-WISE COMPARISON East North Mean Marks: 72.4 Mean Marks: 70.1 Number of Candidates: 59,407 Number of Candidates: 65,202 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 14 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 02 Mean Marks: 79.1 REGION Number of Candidates: 35,338 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 19 South Mean Marks: 82.4 Number of Candidates: 22,948 Mean Marks: 86.4 Number of Candidates: 430 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 26 Foreign 6 Highest Marks: 100 Lowest Marks: 18 West Mean Marks obtained by Boys and Girls-Region wise 71.4 69.1 North 73.2 80.0 71.8 East 83.4 78.1 South 86.9 81.6 West 85.9 Foreign Comparison on the basis of Gender within Region Region North (N) East (E) South (S) West (W) Foreign (F) Gender Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys Girls Boys *Significant at 0.05 level N Mean SE 28,131 37,071 26,571 32,836 17,659 17,679 10,425 12,523 221 209 71.4 69.1 73.2 71.8 80.0 78.1 83.4 81.6 86.9 85.9 0.11 0.10 0.11 0.10 0.10 0.11 0.14 0.13 0.77 0.98 REGION (N, E, S, W) 7 t-value 15.80* 9.52* 12.54* 9.60* 0.84 MARK RANGES : COMPARISON GENDER-WISE Comparison on the basis of gender in top and bottom mark ranges Marks Range Top Range (81-100) Bottom Range (0-20) *Significant at 0.05 level Gender Girls Boys Girls Boys N Mean SE 38,806 42,398 68 266 89.9 89.6 19.0 19.1 0.03 0.03 0.27 0.11 Boys Girls t-value 6.63* -0.18 All Candidates Marks Range (81-100) 89.6 81-100 89.9 89.7 71.3 61-80 Marks Range (81-100) 71.5 71.4 51.9 41-60 52.0 51.9 33.9 Marks Range (0-20) 21-40 34.5 34.1 19.1 0-20 19.0 19.1 8 GRADES AWARDED : COMPARISON GENDER-WISE Comparison on the basis of gender in Grade 1 and Grade 9 Grades Grade 1 Grade 9 *Significant at 0.05 level Gender Girls Boys Girls Boys N Mean SE 20,584 21,626 68 266 94.1 94.0 19.0 19.1 0.02 0.02 0.27 0.11 Boys Grade 1 Girls t-value 3.79* -0.18 All Candidates 94.0 94.1 94.0 1 84.7 84.7 84.7 2 75.6 75.6 75.6 3 Grade 1 66.8 66.8 66.8 4 56.8 56.9 56.8 5 47.7 47.8 47.7 6 Grade 9 37.9 38.1 38.0 7 8 9 9 24.3 24.5 24.4 19.1 19.0 19.1 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS HISTORY AND CIVICS (H.C.G.-PAPER-1) PART I (30 Marks) Attempt all questions from this Section Question 1 (a) Name the bill that cannot originate in the Rajya Sabha. [1] (b) What is meant by the term quorum ? [1] (c) What is the maximum gap allowed between the two parliamentary sessions? [1] (d) Who administers the oath of office to the Council of Ministers? [1] (e) What is an Ordinance? [1] (f) State any one reason why the President is elected indirectly. [1] (g) State any one administrative function of the Cabinet. [1] (h) Name any two writs issued by the Supreme Court. [1] (i) Name the highest criminal court in a district. [1] (j) What is meant by Lok Adalats? [1] 10 Comments of Examiner (a) Majority of the candidates named the bill that cannot originate in the Rajya Sabha correctly. (b) Some candidates wrote incorrect interpretations of the term quorum. (c) This part was generally answered correct by most of the candidates, but a few mentioned six weeks maximum gap allowed between the two parliamentary sessions instead of six months. (d) Majority of the candidates answered this question correctly. However, a few candidates, instead of writing the President of India, wrote either the Prime Minister or the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. (e) Most candidates wrote the correct answer although a few explained Ordinance vaguely. Some candidates wrote Command, which is more verbal and may not have an authority of law. (f) A few candidates, misunderstood the question and instead of giving the reason for the President being elected indirectly, wrote on how the President is elected. (g) Quite a few candidates stated the relations of the cabinet with the President and the Prime Minister instead of stating any one administrative function of the Cabinet. (h) Some candidates instead of naming two writs issued by the Supreme Court explained the Fundamental Rights. There were spelling errors in a few answer scripts. (i) Majority of the candidates were able to answer this question correctly. However, a few candidates, instead of writing Session Court mentioned either District Court or Civil Court. (j) Many candidates, instead of writing the meaning of Lok Adalat, explained its advantages. 11 Suggestions for teachers Explain to students the difference between Money Bill and Non- Money Bill and the powers of the two Houses over these Bills in detail. Interpret different procedures of Parliament clearly. Organize a mock session of Parliament in school which will help the students in appreciating the parliamentary procedures. Tell the students the number of times the Indian Parliament meets in a year and the gap between these sessions. Spell out the different powers of the President like He appoints the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, also administers oath to them. Clarify students that an ordinance is a law, decree or an order issued by the President during the recess of Parliament. Point out students that the President of India is not elected directly by the people since India has a Parliamentary form of Government Clearly bring out the distinction between the administrative and legislative functions of the Cabinet. the students that the Tell administrative function of the Cabinet involves framing of policies & its implementation. Describe writs issued by the courts in detail. Also advise students to learn the spellings of the writs. Clarify students the structure of the subordinate courts. Teach the students the difference between the Sessions Court and the District Court. Make students understand the meaning of the word Lok Adalat. Advise students to read and understand the questions before attempting them. MARKING SCHEME Question 1 (a) Money Bill (b) A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present before a meeting is allowed to begin. The quorum to constitute a meeting of the House is one-tenth of the total strength of the House. (c) Maximum 6 months / less than six months / Not more than six months. (Any one point) (d) President (e) When Parliament is not in session or emergency, an Ordinance is used. It is a temporary law/an order issued by the President. (Any one point) (f) Become a rival center of power to the Council of ministers, would be against the parliamentary system, would become a nominee of the ruling party and would not represent the constituent states of the union, His indirect election by Electoral college makes the President the elected representative of the whole nation. He is the nominal head. The real power lies in the hands of Prime Minister and the parliament. Election to be quiet and dignified affair. Loss of time, energy and money. (Any one point) (g) (i) The Cabinet is a policy framing body, after it determines on a policy, the appropriate Ministry like Ministry of Agriculture or Civil Aviation and others carries it out. Each Ministry or Department faithfully follows the directives of the Cabinet. (ii) The President makes all major appointments with the aid and advice of the Ministers. Appointment of the Attorney-General of India, the Governor of a State, the Chief Election Commissioner, the Election Commissioners. Implementation and coordination policy (Any one point) (h) Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo- warranto. (Any two points) (i) (j) Sessions Court/Court of Session Judge People s Court Question 2 (a) Mention any two economic factors responsible for the growth of nationalism in India. [2] (b) Name the two Presidents under whom the first two sessions of the Indian National [2] Congress were held. (c) Name the nationalist who said, Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it . State any [2] one of his contributions to the National Movement. (d) State any two objectives of the Muslim League. [2] (e) State any two causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930. [2] (f) Name the last Viceroy of India. State any one of the provisions of the Indian [2] Independence Act of 1947. 12 (g) Give any two similarities between the ideologies of Nazism and Fascism. [2] (h) Name the countries that formed the Axis Bloc, during World War II. [2] (i) Give the full form of UNESCO. [2] (j) State any two principles of Panchsheel in the Non-Aligned Movement. [2] Comments of Examiner (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) Most of the candidates answered this question well. However, a few candidates were confused between economic and political factors of the growth of nationalism. Answered correctly by majority of the candidates. However, a few candidates mentioned the name of Surendra Nath Banerjee. Most candidates identified the nationalist correctly but were confused between his contributions with that of the other leaders. Majority of the candidates were unable to write the objectives of the Muslim League. Instead of writing its objectives in 1906, they wrote about the demands made by it later for Pakistan and for the introduction of the Urdu language. Most of the candidates could write the causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930 correctly. However, a few candidates mentioned the causes that led to the launching of Non-Cooperation Movement. Answered correctly by majority of the candidates. However, a few candidates mentioned the name of C. Rajagopalachari who was the last GovernorGeneral of India. Many candidates mixed up the causes and ideologies of Nazism and Fascism with the causes that led to the rise of dictatorship in Germany and Italy. Some candidates got baffled between Axis and Allied powers. A few candidates mixed up the names of the countries. Most of the candidates answered well except for a few, who wrote Social instead of Scientific. Some candidates were confused between the objectives of NAM and the principles of Panchsheel 13 Suggestions for teachers Teach the factors responsible for the growth of nationalism by making a flow chart, with separate headings economic, social, religions and political etc. This will aid in conceptual clarity. Emphasize the first two sessions of the Indian National Congress and the names of the Presidents who presided over the sessions. Do a comparative study of the leaders/groups/associations with their slogans etc. Clearly differentiate between the objectives of Muslim League at the time of its formation in 1906 and the demands made by it later on. Explain students the difference between the Civil Disobedience Movement and Non-Cooperation Movement. Clarify to the students the difference between the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Mountbatten Plan. Interpret the main difference between the causes and ideologies of Nazism and Fascism. Encourage students to prepare flash cards to learn and retain the names of the counties and the alliances formed during the two world wars. Give adequate practice, through quizzes and written tests, to the students to expand acronyms. Elucidate the difference between Panchsheel and the objectives of Non-Aligned Movement. MARKING SCHEME Question 2 (a) Economic Exploitation (i) Peasants: The government took away a large part of their produce. (ii) British economic policies were against the interests of Indian trade and industry. (iii) Working class were exploited by the factory owners. (iv) Educated Indians were denied promotions and employment. (v) Did nothing to promote the welfare of the people (vi) Heavy duties on Indian Goods (vii) India was reduced to an agricultural glory of the British. (b) (c) (i) W.C. Banerjee (ii) Dadabhai Naroji (Any two points) Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Close contact with masses, demand for swaraj inculcate courage, selfdefence, patriotism by organizing Akharas & lathi clubs, started Ganapati and Shivaji festivals, two newspapers- Maratha and kesari, two books- Gita Rahasya and the Artic Home of the Vedas. Establish Home Rule league in 1916, forerunner of Mahatma Gandhi, preached the ideas of Swadeshi, Boycott and Prohibition. His role in the anti-partition movement. (Any two points) (d) To promote among the Indian Muslim support for British rule, to remove misconceptions between the British government in relation to Indian Muslims, to protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Muslims, to represent the needs and aspirations to the government in mild and moderate way. To prevent the rise of feelings of hostility between the Muslims and other communities. (Two points) (e) Simon Commission, Declaration of Poorna swaraj at Lahore session (1929), Nehru report, Viceroy declaration, Gandhi s eleven demands, Salt satyagraha (Two points) (f) Lord Mountbatten 1. Two new Dominions. 2. Provisions of Partition 3. Governor general for each dominion 4. Constituent assemblies to serve as central legislatives. 5. End of jurisdiction of the Pre-Parliament. 6. Princely states 7. Treaties and Agreements 8. Division of the army and the Assets. 9. Bringing the act into operation. 14 10. Office of secretary of state of interest of existing officers. (Any two points) (g) Faith in Totalitarian rule (dictatorship), to despise democracy, communism, socialism, internationalism. One party one Leader, Belief in aggressive nationalism, imperialism, war, policy of expansion, believe in supremacy of state rather than Individual use of force. Antiintellectualism, belief in racial supremacy. (Any two points) (h) Germany, Italy, Japan (Berlin-Rome-Tokyo axis) (i) UNESCO - United Nations Educational, Scientific, Cultural organization. (j) (i) Mutual non-interference in each other s internal affairs. (Three countries) (ii) Mutual non-aggression (iii) Equality for mutual benefit. (iv) Mutual respect for each other s territorial integrity and sovereignty. (v) Peaceful co-existence. (Any two points) PART II (50 Marks) SECTION A Attempt any two questions from this Section Question 3 With reference to the Union Parliament, answer the following questions: (a) How many members may be nominated to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? Give [3] one reason as to why they may be nominated to the Lok Sabha. (b) Mention any three qualifications required for a member to be elected to the Lok Sabha. [3] (c) What is meant by the term Session ? Name the three Sessions of the Union Parliament. [4] 15 Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates were able to write the number of members who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha but were unable to give a reason for their nomination to the Lok Sabha. (b) This question was correctly answered by most candidates. (c) Majority of the candidates wrote the meaning of the term session correctly. However, a few candidates could not name the three sessions of the Union Parliament correctly. Suggestion for teachers Stress on the number of members nominated to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha and the reasons for their nominations to both the houses. Explain to the students, in a tabular form, the differences in qualifications required for election to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President of India. Clarify students that although the Parliament should hold at least two sessions within a gap of six months, the Indian Parliament holds three sessions in a year. MARKING SCHEME Question 3 (a) Two to Lok Sabha from the Anglo- Indian community, Twelve to Rajya Sabha of those who have special knowledge and practical experience in the fields of literature, art, science/ social service. Two from the Anglo-Indian Community if they are not adequately represented. (b) (i) A citizen of India (ii) Must not be less than 25 years of age. (iii) Must not hold an office of profit. (c) (iv) Should not be an insolvent. Unsound mind, criminal (Any three points) Sessions: The President summons each house of Parliament when the members meet for deliberations. Normally there are three sessions in the year Budget Session (February May) Monsoon Session (July August) Winter Session (November December) 16 Question 4 The President and the Vice-President are part of the Union Executive. In this context, answer the following questions: (a) State any three qualifications required for a candidate to be elected as the Vice-President [3] of India. (b) State the three functions of the Vice-President. [3] (c) Explain briefly any two Legislative and any two Executive powers of the President. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates answered the question correctly. However, a few candidates, instead of writing the qualifications of the Vice-President wrote the qualifications required for membership of the Lok Sabha. (b) Most candidates wrote the three functions of the VicePresident correctly. (c) A number of candidates muddled up the executive and the legislative powers of the President Suggestion for teachers - - Explain the qualifications for the election of the Vice-President of India, his term of the office, functions and powers thoroughly to the students. Draw a flow chart to explain the executive powers and legislative powers of the President. Emphasize that the power of appointments is included in the executive powers while legislative powers include the law-making powers or powers concerning the Parliament MARKING SCHEME Question 4 (a) A person is eligible for election as Vice-President if he: (i) is a citizen of India (ii) is not less than 35 years of age. (iii) is qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha (iv) must not hold any office of profit either under Union Government or under State Government. (b) (Any three points) (i) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, acts as the Ex- Officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, he regulates debates and proceedings of the house. 17 (ii) Decides the orders of speech admissibility of resolution or of question suspend or adjourn the house in case of grave disorder. (iii)Takes over the office of the President in case of the president s death, resignation or removal. (c) (Three points) Legislative power: Addresses Sessions of Parliament, Message to Parliament, summons and prorogue the house, dissolve the Lok Sabha, Nomination of Members (2 Lok Sabha, 12 Rajya Sabha). Assent to Bills, Issue Ordinances, Assent to state bills, Formation of New States. (Any two points) Executive Powers: Head of the Union Administration, Appointment of officials of the State Appoints Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts, Governors of the State, The Lt. Governors and the Chief Commissioners of the Union Territories, The Attorney General of India, The comptroller and Auditor General of India, The Chairman and Members of Planning Commissions and Economic Commission, Chief Election Commissioners, control over the state (President's rule) Administration of Union Territories and Border Areas. (Any two points) Question 5 Our Judicial system has a Supreme Court at its Apex, followed by the High Court and other subordinate Courts. In the light of this statement, explain the following: (a) Any three types of cases in which the Supreme Court exercises its Original Jurisdiction. [3] (b) Any three ways by which the Constitution ensures the Independence of the Judiciary. [3] (c) Advisory and Revisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [4] 18 Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates answered this question correctly. However, a few candidates, instead of writing on the cases in which the Supreme Court exercises its Original Jurisdiction, wrote on cases which come under other jurisdictions of the Supreme Court. (b) Most of the candidates answered three ways by which the Constitution ensures the Independence of the Judiciary correctly. (c) Some candidates got confused between the Advisory and Revisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Suggestion for Teachers Lay emphasis on the key words and explain their meaning with concrete examples. Stress on the word original while explaining Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court so that students are clear on the type of cases under it. Explain to the students how and why the independence of Supreme Court is essential for the functioning of democracy. To prove the independent status of the Supreme Court, give examples like security of tenure and appointment of judges. Clarify to the students, the difference between the terms Revise and Review with reference to the powers of the Supreme Court. MARKING SCHEME Question 5 (a) Original Jurisdiction: (i) The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in all disputes between the Union and States as well as between the states. (ii) Protection of Fundamental Rights (iii) Final Interpretation of the Constitution. (iv) Transfer of cases from lower court. (v) In a dispute between the union and state on one side and any other state on the other side. (Any three points) (b) (i) Appointment of Judges: Neither political bias nor personal favouritism would play any part in the appointment of Judges. It has enhanced independence of the judiciary. (ii) Security of Tenure: A Judge can remain in office till he has attained the age of 65 years. He can be removed by the President on the ground of proven misbehaviour or incapacity. It means that an Address can only be presented after an allegation has been thoroughly examined by some impartial tribunal. (iii) Salaries are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India: Judge s salaries and allowances shall not be varied to their disadvantage during their term of office. 19 (iv) No discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge: in the discharge of his duties. (v) Genuine criticism of a Judgement is allowed, but nothing should be done to lower the authority or dignity of the Court. (vi) Prohibition of practice after Retirement: A retired judge of the Supreme Court cannot plead any case in any court or tribunal in India. (Any three points) (c) The President may obtain the opinion / advice of the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact, which is of public importance. Questions must be specific and not general or vague. The Supreme Court may report its opinion, after such hearing as it thinks fit. First, the Supreme Court is not bound to express any opinion on the questions submitted to it. Second, the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding on the President or on other courts, because it is not a judicial decision . (Any two points) The Supreme Court has power to review any judgement pronounced by it. This provision reflects that human judgement is fallible and the Court may rectify something that was misjudged. The Supreme Court cannot allow errors to continue indefinitely. It causes harm or damage to the general welfare of the public. (Any two points) SECTION B Attempt any three questions from this Section Question 6 Numerous causes gave rise to the First War of Independence and its consequences led to several changes in the British Government in India. In this context, answer the following: (a) Explain any three political causes of the Revolt of 1857. [3] (b) Briefly explain the immediate cause of the Great Revolt. [3] (c) State any four changes in the administration of the British Government as a consequence [4] of the Revolt. 20 Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates wrote three causes of the Revolt of 1857 correctly. However, a few mentioned other causes instead of political causes. (b) Majority of the candidates explained the immediate cause of the Great Revolt correctly barring a few exceptions who explained the immediate causes of the First World War instead of the Great Revolt. (c) Majority of the candidates stated all the changes brought about by the British after the Revolt of 1857 rather than stating the administrative changes only as asked in the question Suggestions for teachers Train students to write on what the question asks for and to be specific in their answers. Instruct students to read and understand the question before attempting it. - Clarify to the students that the results of the Revolt of 1857 are different from the administrative changes. Thereby, all changes introduced by the British are not the part of administrative changes MARKING SCHEME Question 6 (a) Political Causes: Policy of expansion Outright wars Doctrine of lapse Subsidiary alliance Annexations Discourtesy to the Mughal emperor Treatment to Nana Sahib Unpopular administration Absentee Sovereignty (b) (Any three points) Immediate cause: Introduction of the Enfield Rifle: Greased the cartridge with animal fat and sepoys had to bite it off. Went against their religious sentiments. (c) (Narration / Explanation) (i) End of Company s rule and the power transferred to the Crown. (ii) Company s Board of Control and the Court of Directors were abolished. (iii) The Secretary of State to be assisted by the Indian Council of 15 members. 21 (iv) Appointments to the Civil Service to be made by open competition under rules made by the Secretary of State. (v) The Viceroy took over the administration of the British Government in India. (vi) Salary and allowance were to be found out of revenue of India. (vii) The Governor General received the additional title of Viceroy. (Any four points) Question 7 The Quit India Resolution in 1942 was one of the final calls given by Gandhi for the British to leave India. Moving towards Independence, Lord Mountbatten s Plan was significant. In this context, answer the following: (a) State two reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement. [3] (b) Give any three effects of the Quit India Movement launched by Gandhi in 1942 that was [3] significant to the last phase of the National Movement of India. (c) Give any four clauses of the Mountbatten Plan of 1947. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) (b) (c) Several candidates, instead of stating for the launching of the Quit India wrote the reasons for launching movements like Civil Disobedience and Non-Cooperation Movement. the reasons Movement, the other Movement Most of the candidates were able to write the correct answer. Some candidates wrote only two effects and repeated the same points in different forms. Most of the candidates wrote the correct clauses of the of the Mountbatten Plan of 1947. A few candidates got confused between the Mountbatten Plan and the Indian Independence Act / the Cabinet Mission Plan. 22 Suggestions for teachers Explain clearly to the students the causes and consequences of all the movements launched by Mahatma Gandhi. Elucidate to the students about the Cabinet Mission Plan, Mountbatten Plan and the Indian Independence Act. Tell the students that the country was divided according to the Mountbatten Plan and finally the British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act which provided the basis for the creation of India and Pakistan. MARKING SCHEME Question 7 (a) (i) Failure of the Cripps mission (ii) Japanese Threat (iii) Worsening of Communal problem of new confidence that the people had attained. (iv) (b) The movement hastened the British decision to quit India. (Any two points) (i) It demonstrated the depth of the nationalist feelings in India and the capacity of Indians for struggle of sacrifice. (ii) Undermined the strength of the British in India. (iii) It once again became a mass movement. (iv) The movement was symbolic. (c) (Any three points) Mountbatten s Plan (i) Two new dominions (ii) Provisions of Partition (Sindh, NWFP, Sylhet, Bengal and Punjab) (iii) Governor General for each dominion (iv) Constituent Assemblies to serve as central legislatives (v) End of British Parliament (vi) Princely states (vii) Treaties and Agreements (viii) Division of the army and assets (ix) Bringing the act into operation (x) Office of Secretary of state of interest of existing officers. (xi) Creation of a Boundary commission (xii) Transfer of Power (xiii) Relations with commonwealth. (Any four points) 23 Question 8 Study the picture given below and answer the following questions: (a) Identify the leader given in the picture. [3] Name the Political party and the Military Organisation that he formed. (b) State any three objectives of the Political party that he founded. [3] (c) Mention any four objectives of the Military Organisation that he formed. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) All the candidates were able to identify the leader given in the picture. They were also able to name the political party and the Military Organization founded by Subhas Chandra Bose. (b) Majority of the candidates, instead of stating the objectives of the Forward Bloc, mentioned the objectives of the Indian National Army. (c) Many candidates, instead of mentioning the objectives of the Indian National Army either mentioned the objectives of the Forward Bloc or a mix of the objectives of both Forward Bloc and the Indian National Army. 24 Suggestions for teachers Train students to identify the pictures of important leaders and teach them the contributions of these leaders in the freedom struggle. Clearly differentiate between the objectives of the Forward Bloc and the Indian National Army. Emphasize on keywords and create mind maps and train the students also to make their own mind maps for better retention. MARKING SCHEME Question 8 (a) (b) (c) Subhas Chandra Bose Forward Bloc Indian National Army Forward Bloc: Objectives: 1. Reorganization of agriculture and industry on socialist lines. 2. Abolition of the Zamindari system. 3. Introduction of a new monetary and credit system 4. Liberation of India 5. Making Right to work as Fundamental 6. Providing workers several kinds of benefits. (Any three points) (i) To organize an armed resolution and to fight the British army with modern arms. (ii) To use the Indians living abroad in East Asia and then to confront the British. (iii) To organize a provisional government of free India (iv) Total mobilization of Indian man-power and money for a total war. (v) The motto of the INA was unity, faith, sacrifice . (vi) To train people for armed struggle inside and outside the country. (vii) To throw the British out of the country. (Any four points) Question 9 With reference to the Two Major World Wars in the 20th century, answer the following questions: (a) Explain briefly the causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism. [3] (b) Explain briefly the territorial rearrangements as a result of World War I. [3] (c) State any four causes that led to the Second World War. [4] 25 Comments of Examiners (a) (b) (c) Most of the candidates could not distinguish between Nationalism and Imperialism and hence were unable to write the correct answer. In many answer scripts there was overlapping of points. A few candidates mentioned the other causes of the First World War. Majority of the candidates could not write the specific territorial rearrangements as a result of World War I. Some candidates wrote Treaty of Versailles also as a territorial rearrangement. Most candidates wrote the correct causes that led to the Second World War. A few candidates, however, mixed up the causes of the First and the Second World War. Suggestions for teachers Point out to the students about the difference between Nationalism and Imperialism. Clarify to the students about the causes and results of the First World War and the Second World War in detail. Stress upon that the Treaty of Versailles does not come under the territorial rearrangements. Draw a flow chart to explain the causes of the two World Wars. Train students to write on what the question asks for and to be specific in their answers. MARKING SCHEME Question 9 (a) (b) (c) (i) Aggressive nationalism Military strength became the same with national prestige and every country began to increase her military power. e.g. Serbia, France and Italy (ii) Imperialism was a system by which a powerful nation used to establish its control over another country/ dispute over Morocco. (iii) England and France built up a huge colonial empire in Asia and Africa. (iv) Each nation thought about its national interest and did not care for the interest of other nations. (v) France wanted to get back Alsace-Lorraine. (vi) Unsatisfied nation spirit of Balkans/discontent among Italians/ Franco-Prussian war/Germany wanted to be the leader of the world. (Any three points) Territorial rearrangement: (i) Three ruling dynasties were destroyed Romanov in Russia, Hohenzollern in Germany and Hapsburg in Austria- Hungary (ii) Ottomans rule came to an end. (iii) Czechoslovakia and Yugoslavia emerged as independent states (Romani, Finland). (iv) Alsace-Lorraine was restored to France. (v) Schleswig Holstein was given to Denmark (vi) Austria -Hungry separated (vii) USA emerged as World Power (viii) Germany had to surrender the areas of Eupen and Malmedy to Belgium. (Any three points) Causes of the Second World war: (i) Dissatisfaction with the Treaty of Versailles (ii) Rise of Fascism and Nazism 26 (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (vii) (viii) Policy of Appeasement Japanese invasion of China Failure of League of Nations Hitler s invasion of Poland. Arms race Non-interference of USA in the world affairs. (any four points) Question 10 With reference to the United Nations and its Specialized Agencies, answer the following: (a) Mention any three functions of the International Court of Justice. [3] (b) State the composition of the General Assembly. [3] (c) State any two functions of the UNICEF and any two functions of WHO. [4] Comments of Examiners (a) Several candidates did not write three functions of the International Court of Justice correctly. They mixedup the functions of the United Nations and the Security Council. (b) Majority of the candidates stated the composition of the General Assembly correctly. A few candidates, however, wrote the composition of the Security Council. (c) Most of the candidates stated the functions of the UNICEF and WHO correctly. However, some candidates, instead of writing the functions of UNICEF wrote the functions of UNESCO. Suggestions for teachers Explain to the students thoroughly the functions of the International Court of Justice. Teach the composition and functions of the organs of United Nations by drawing a flow chart. Ask students to make flash cards to retain all the functions of the major agencies of the U.N. - Give sufficient written practice to the students that will help them to remember key words and formulate better answers MARKING SCHEME Question 10 (a) Three functions of the International Court of Justice: (i) Advisory opinion on legal matters to the organs of special agencies of the UN. (ii) Decides disputes between member states when referred. (iii) Disputes concerning interpretation of international law. (iv)Compensation for breeding international law & treaty/agreements (v) Certification of International law (vi) To suggest methods for peaceful settlement of disputes. (Any three points) 27 (b) 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. All members of the United Nations are members of the General Assembly. Each state has five representatives in the General Assembly. Each state has only one vote. It is a kind of Parliament. At the starting of each session the assembly elects a new President, 21 vice Presidents. The Presidency rotates each year among five groups of state. (Any three points) (c) Functions of UNICEF 1. To render assistance in providing protective food like milk, meat, fish and fats to the children. It takes care of interests of women and pregnant mothers. 2. To provide funds for the training of health and sanitation workers nutritionist and cr che workers. 3. Universal Child Immunization against preventable diseases by 1990. 4. To extend support to programmes such as suppression of traffic in women and children and prevention of crimes committed by children. 5. To provide instant help to children and women when some disaster like earthquake happens or overtaken by an epidemic. 6. To supply paper to publish textbooks. 7. Technical supplies, equipment and other aids for medicines and pipes and pumps for bringing clean water to villages. (Any two points) Functions of WHO 1. Direct and coordinate health work on an international scale. 2. Eradicate disease 3. Promote the provision of good health and living conditions of the people. 4. To set international standards for food and medicines. 5. To provide safe drinking water. 6. Vaccination /immunization against six major diseases. 7. It promotes research to cure and prevent disease. 8. To organize conferences and seminars. 9. It publishes magazines and bulletins. (Any two points) Note: For questions having more than one correct answer/solution, alternate correct answers/solutions, apart from those given in the marking scheme, have also been accepted. 28 Administrative functions of the cabinet. Topics found Topics found d Topics found difficult/ confusing byofcandidates Legislative and Executive powers the President. Advisory and Revisory Jurisdictions of the Supreme Court. difficult/ ifficult/ confusing Changes inby the candidates administration of the British Government as a confusing by Consequences of the Revolt. candidates Objectives of Forward Bloc and Indian National Army. Causes of First World War with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism. Suggestions for candidates Study the entire syllabus, avoid selective study. Do a thorough study of the text book regularly. Learn key words/technical terms/definitions/abbreviations with conceptual clarity. Study every topic with sub headings to achieve clarity. Comprehend the topic instead of just learning it. Follow the scope of the syllabus religiously. Make mind maps, flow charts and tables for better retention. Write all differences-based questions in a tabular form. Solve previous years question papers. Practise writing the answers of the questions keeping in mind the format of the question paper. 29 QUALITATIVE ANALYSIS GEOGRAPHY (H.C.G.-PAPER-2) PART I (30 Marks) Attempt all questions from this Part Question 1 Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/7 and answer the following questions: (a) Give the six figure grid reference for: (I) (ii) (b) 268 Temple south east of Khara Name the following: (i) (ii) (c) [2] [2] The drainage pattern seen in 9185. The pattern of settlement seen in 9787. What do the following symbols mean? (i) (ii) [2] 3r in 9089. 200 in 9383. (d) Name two types of vegetation found in the region east of easting 93. (e) Give two evidences which suggest that the rainfall received in the region shown on the [2] map extract is seasonal. (f) Calculate the area of the region between 85 90 northing and 90 95 easting. Give [2] your answer in kilometer. (g) Mention any two manmade features and two natural features in grid square 9080. (h) What is the direct distance in kilometers between the surveyed tree west of Rampura [2] (9580) to the Chhatri in Juvol (9282)? (i) Mention: [2] (i) The most commonly used means of transport in the area shown on the map extract. (ii) The main occupation of the people of the region in the southeastern part of the map extract. (i) What is the compass direction of Rampura (9580) from Karja (9781)? [2] (ii) Identify the landform marked by contours in 9782. (j) 30 [2] [2] Comments of Examiners (a) In Parts (i) and (ii), several candidates were unable to calculate the six-figure grid reference. While a number of candidates interchanged the 3rd and 6th place, many left a gap in the 3rd and 6th place. (b) (i) Some candidates, instead of writing the technical term radial pattern, wrote flows in all direction from the centre. (ii) Many candidates wrote the correct term-scattered settlement. However, some candidates, instead of writing the technical term wrote huts are far from each other. (c) (i) Several candidates, instead of giving the technical term 3r in 9089 - Relative Height of embankment, explained the conventional symbols. (ii) Majority of the candidates were unable to differentiate between contour, contour height or contour line. Many candidates wrote contour interval. (d) Some candidates, instead of mentioning dense mixed jungle and open scrub wrote evergreen forest, deciduous forest or tropical monsoon forest. (e) Most of the candidates were unable to answer this question as they wrote evidences of seasonal rainfall other than those observed on the given map. (f) Candidates were able to score well. (g) Most of the candidates were able to write the manmade features but were unable to mention the natural features. Some candidates wrote tree as a natural feature which was incorrect as trees may grow naturally or may be planted. (h) Many candidates did not write the unit. (i) Most of the candidates were able to answer both parts of the question. (j) Both sub-parts of this part of the question were answered correctly by most candidates. Suggestions for teachers 31 Give extensive practice to students to find out the six-figure grid reference followed by short class tests. Lay stress on the use of technical terms. Teach the four-drainage patternsDendritic, Trellis, Radial and Disappearing with the help of diagrams. Give adequate practice of the survey map. Teach students how to read topographical maps from the information on the sheet itself. Teach students to answer questions on maps from what they observe on the maps and not from their theoretical knowledge. Emphasise the significance of writing the unit for any value it may be area, distance, length, breadth or height. It is very important or else the figure is meaningless. Guide and help students to learn the difference between man-made and natural features on the map. Also explain broken ground and broken land. Demonstrate the use of twine to measure the distance. Revise conventional symbols and landform features regularly with students. Also teach them the features like escarpment, steep slope, water divide, spur, etc. Explain the contour structure of all land forms present in the syllabus with the help of cross-section. MARKING SCHEME Question 1 (a) (b) (c) (i) 949834 (ii) 969861/2 (i) 9185 Radial (ii) 9787 Scattered / Dispersed (i) 3r in 9089 the relative height of the earthwork embankment is 3 meters. (ii) 200 in 9383 the value of the contour line is 200 m above mean sea level. (d) Dense mixed jungle, open scrub. (e) Seasonal streams / seasonal tanks / dry tank/broken ground. (Any two) Seasonal river with water channel/ dry stream. (f) There are 25 grid squares in this boundary limit. Scale of map is 2 cm = 1 km. Area of 1 grid square is 1 km2 Area of 25 squares is 25 km2. (g) Manmade features cart track / cultivated land / permanent hut / Temple / Ranawas settlement / lined perennial well. (Any two) Natural features seasonal stream / plain / broken ground / disappearing stream / barren land/dry river/intermittent stream. (Any two) (h) 6.7 cm Scale is 2 cm = 1 km 6.7 cm = 6.7 2 = 3.35 km ~ (3-4 km) (accepted range 3.25 3.45 km) i.e. 6.5 6.9 cm (i) (j) (i) Cart track/pack track (ii) Cultivation / Agriculture / Farming. (i) South west (ii) Conical hill / valley / spur / water shed/escarpment/steep slope. Question 2 On the outline map of India provided: (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) Shade and label Thar desert. Label the river Narmada. Shade and name the Wular lake. Shade and label Kanara coast. Mark and name Mount Kanchenjunga. [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] 32 (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) Shade and label a densely-populated region in India. Shade and label a region with Red soil in India. Mark with a dot and name Chennai. Mark and label the Arabian Sea branch of S.W. Monsoon. Mark with a dot and name Singhbhum. [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] Comments of Examiners (a) (b) (c) (d) (e) (f) (g) (h) (i) (j) Majority of the candidates demarcated and shaded a very large area of the Thar Desert extending it into Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan through UP and Gujarat too. Most of the candidates marked the Narmada River correctly. Some candidates marked the Wular Lake over a large area. Most candidates shaded the Kanara coast beyond and into Malabar/Konkan coast. A number of candidates marked Nathula as Mount Kanchenjunga. A few candidates marked it in Nepal. To show a densely populated region in India, some candidates shaded the Ganga plain which extended into Nepal. A few candidates shaded entire area of West Bengal which extended into Bangladesh. Most of the candidates were able to correctly mark the region with red soil in India. In some cases, Chennai was marked with a big dot which extended into the water body. Most of the candidates were able to mark the Arabian Sea Branch of S.W. Monsoon. In few cases, the arrow head was marked incorrectly/horizontally. Most of the candidates marked Singhbhum in Orissa 33 Suggestions for teachers Teach the exact location of deserts and give adequate practice in shading as per the asked question. Emphasise the use of arrows for marking rivers, areas and directions and making sure that the arrow head point towards the feature. The rivers can be outlined in blue and their names be written on the top of the line. Tell the students that the Wular Lake is located north of the river Jhelum touching its northern bend. Guide students about the extent of the coast. Give adequate practice to students in marking the correct location of the hills/mountain peaks on maps. Guide students to mark cities with small dots. Instruct students not to extend ports, cities into the water body. While teaching the topic on climate, lay stress that the angle/direction of the arrow/arrow head must be marked correctly. Teach the topic on minerals thoroughly along with adequate practice on the map. Stress upon regular practice of map work, with instructions on how to mark features correctly. MARKING SCHEME Question 2 MAP PART II (50 Marks) Attempt any five questions from this Part Question 3 (a) How is the winter rainfall of the northwest part of India different from the winter [2] rainfall of the southeast part of India? (b) (i) Name a state that is the first to experience the onset of the monsoon. (ii) How does the Mango shower influence the state of Karnataka? [2] (c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3] 34 (i) Kanyakumari experiences equable climate. (ii) Central Maharashtra gets less rainfall than the coastal area of Maharashtra. Jaipur has a higher annual range of temperature than Mumbai. (iii) (d) Write three differences between summer monsoon season and retreating monsoon [3] season. Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question. Some candidates gave a long explanation of the answer without breaking it into points. (b) (i) Some candidates, instead of mentioning the state, mentioned the place. (ii) Most candidates were able to answer this question. (c) (i) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question. (ii) Several candidates wrote vague reasons for why Central Maharashtra gets less rainfall than the coastal area of Maharashtra. (iii) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question. (d) Some candidates wrote the differences between summer season and rainy season instead of summer monsoon season and retreating monsoon season. Suggestions for teachers Train students to write the differences in a tabular form, point wise and with the basis for distinction. Discourage students from writing answers in long drawn explanations. Train students to write answers to the point, emphasising on key words. Through classroom discussions, give adequate practice to students to answer reasoning questions which require thorough knowledge and conceptual clarity. Advise students to read the question carefully to avoid careless mistakes. MARKING SCHEME Question 3 (a) Rainfall in northwest part of India occurs due to temperate cyclone where as in south east part of India it is due to winter monsoon / retreating monsoon. (b) (i) Kerala (ii) Mango shower helps in early ripening of Mango crop and is also helpful for tea / coffee cultivation in Karnataka. (i) Kanyakumari is near the sea and is also near the equator and so has equable climate. (ii) Central Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow area whereas coastal Maharashtra is on the windward side of Western Ghats. (iii) Jaipur lies in continental interior whereas Mumbai lies close to the sea. Thus, Jaipur has extremes of temperature, but Mumbai has equable climate. Summer Monsoon Season Retreating Monsoon Season - Wind is onshore from S.W. direction. - Wind direction is north east. /withdrawal - Heavy rain, high humidity, high of monsoon. temperature. - Clear sky, high temperature, low - There is rain in almost whole country. humidity. (c) (d) 35 - There is no rain in most parts of India but when wind pick up moisture from Bay of Bengal it brings rain to coromandel coast. Question 4 (a) (b) (c) (d) (i) Why does alluvial soil differ in texture? (ii) State two cash crops that grow well in alluvial soil. With reference to black soil answer the following: (i) Name one important crop which grows in this soil. (ii) Give one chemical property of this soil. Give one geographical reason for each of the following: (i) Red soil requires irrigation. (ii) Afforestation prevents soil from getting eroded. (iii) Laterite soil is red in colour. (i) What is soil erosion? (ii) Mention two causes of soil erosion in India. Comments of Examiners (a) (i) Majority of the candidates got confused between Khadar and Bhangar. Some candidates did not mention the key point that alluvial soil is a transported soil. (ii) Many candidates wrote food crops instead of cash crop. (b) (i) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question. (ii) Most candidates wrote physical properties of black soil instead of writing its chemical properties. (c) (i) Most of the candidates laid stress on Dry farming. Very few candidates wrote on porous soil and low moisture retention. (ii) Most candidates gave correct reason for afforestation prevents soil from getting eroded. (iii) The reason for laterite soils being red in colour was given by some candidates as presence of iron. (d) (i) Some candidates, instead of writing that soil erosion is removal of top soil by agents of aggradation and degradation of the soil, wrote that it is degradation through pollution. (ii) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question. 36 Suggestions for teachers Teach the conservation methods in detail. Teach the students that red colour of the soil is due to ferric oxide or iron oxide (rust) not due to iron. Clearly explain the differences between the causes and agents of soil erosion. Lay stress on the correct use of terminology. Ensure that students have clarity of concepts. Guide the students to write precise answers with the key words. Revise concepts on a regular basis. Emphasise to the students that complete definitions have to be written. [2] [2] [3] [3] MARKING SCHEME Question 4 (a) (i) It varies in texture as it is deposited by rivers. Coarse material is deposited in higher altitude areas and fine material is brought to lower plain /transported soil. (ii) Sugarcane / Jute / Cotton / Tobacco / oilseed (b) (i) Important crop grown in black soil is cotton / sugarcane / tobacco / cereals / oil seeds / jowar / wheat / gram. (ii) Chemical property Rich in lime, potash, calcium & magnesium carbonate. Poor in phosphorous nitrogen and organic matter LIMCAP/non- acidic/non-alkaline. (c) (i) Red soil need irrigation as it does not retain moisture since it is highly porous. (ii) The roots of the trees hold the soil together. (iii) Rich in iron oxide (d) (i) Removal and destruction of soil is called soil erosion. (ii) Causes deforestation / poor farming techniques / overgrazing/ wind/heavy rainfall/human activities/running water shifting cultivation. Question 5 (a) (i) (ii) Name an area in India where Tropical Monsoon forest is found. How is this forest of great commercial value to India? (b) With reference to Littoral forest, answer the following questions: (i) Why do the trees in this forest grow aerial roots? (ii) Name one area in India where this forest is found. [2] (c) (i) (ii) Name a state in India where thorn and scrub forest is found. Give two ways by which the trees that are found here have adapted to the climate. [3] (d) (i) (ii) Give two ways in which forests are important. Mention one forest conservation method followed in India. [3] 37 [2] Comments of Examiners (a) (i) Most of the candidates, instead of writing the area of tropical monsoon forests wrote the name of the state or about the geographical conditions. (ii) Majority of the candidates answered this question correctly. (b) (i) Many candidates were unable to write the correct answer as they considered Littoral as the name of a tree and not as a type of vegetation. (ii) A few candidates, instead of naming an area, named a state. (c) Majority of the candidates were able to answer both the parts of this question. (d) Both sub-parts of this part of the question were answered correctly by most candidates. Suggestions for teachers Explain to students the characteristic features of Littoral vegetation, different trees, uses of the trees and regions where this vegetation is found. Guide students to read and understand the question carefully. Lay emphasis on reasoning questions. Do a constant revision of the topics taught. MARKING SCHEME Question 5 (a) (i) It is found in Northern states along foot hills of Himalayas, Eastern slopes of Western Ghats, Siwalik range and Chota Nagpur plateau region. (ii) This forest has commercially valuable trees i.e. teak, sal, and shisham which yield valuable timber. It is easily accessible /pure stand. (b) (i) Aerial root helps the tress to survive in marshes, creeks and submerged areas. (ii) Along deltas of large rivers of east coast, Sunderban, coastal areas of West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Andaman Nicobar /deltaic area of Godavari, Mahanadi, Krishna. (c) (i) S.W. Punjab, U.P., Central & eastern Rajasthan, M.P., Gujarat. (ii) Trees have adapted by developing long roots, leaves turning to spines, thick fleshy stems to store water drought resistant/xerophytic. (d) (i) Forests are moderators of climate, play important role in carbon cycle, control soil erosion, help water percolation, add humus to soil and are habitat for animals and birds. Maintain ecological balance. (ii) Afforestation / re-afforestation / Van Mahotsav / social forestry / farm forestry, agroforestry/silviculture/joint forest management. 38 Question 6 (a) There is plenty of rain in India during the rainy season, yet we need irrigation. Give two reasons to support this statement. [2] (b) (i) Name three traditional means of irrigation. (ii) Give a reason why traditional means of irrigation are still important in most parts of India. [2] (c) (i) Differentiate between Surface water and Ground water. (ii) Mention two reasons to explain as to why we are facing water scarcity in recent times. [3] (d) (i) What is rain water harvesting? (ii) What are the advantages of rain water harvesting? (iii) Name two water harvesting systems practised in India. [3] Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question. (b) (i) While most candidates answered this question correctly, some were confused about tube wells. (ii) Majority of the candidates were able to explain why traditional means of irrigation are still important in most parts of India. (c) Majority of the candidates were able to answer both the parts of this question. (d) This question was well attempted by most of the candidates Suggestions for teachers Clarify with examples, the difference between modern methods and traditional methods of irrigation. Do a comparative study, by making a flow chart, of the different methods of irrigation along with their advantages and disadvantages MARKING SCHEME Question 6 (a) Rain is erratic and seasonal / annual crops like sugarcane need plenty of water throughout growing period / crops like rice need plenty of water / lot of loss of water due to evaporation on account of tropical climate /HYV seeds. (b) (i) Traditional means wells, canals, tanks. (ii) Traditional means have low initial cost burden / easy to operate / easily accessible to farmers. (c) (i) Surface Water Water available in lakes, ponds, river and streams/ polluted, Ground water water available below land in aquifer/ pure/improve quality of ground water (ii) We face water scarcity as a lot of water is either wasted or polluted. Demand of pure potable water is therefore, more than its supply. 39 (d) Rain water harvesting: (i) It is the procedure of augmenting the natural filtration of rain water to recharge groundwater and storing it in underground reservoirs, borewells, dug wells etc. (ii) To increase the ground water table, to meet the demands of increased population and agricultural activities. (iii) 1. Rain water Harvesting 2. Roof top harvesting system 3. Ground water recharge. (Any two) Question 7 (a) Give two advantages that non-conventional energy sources have over conventional energy sources. [2] (b) (i) Mention one advantage of the use of natural gas over coal or petroleum. (ii) Name one off shore oil field of India. [2] (c) Answer the following: [3] (i) State one industrial use of copper. (ii) Mention one advantage of generating power from bio-gas. (iii) Name the mineral that toughens steel and makes it rust-proof. (d) (i) Name the metal obtained from Bauxite. Give any one use of the metal mentioned by you. (ii) Which multi-purpose project provides power to both Punjab and Himachal Pradesh? Comments of Examiners (a) Majority of the candidates were able to write two advantages of non-conventional energy sources over conventional energy sources. (b) (i) Most of the candidates were able to write one advantage of the use of natural gas over coal or petroleum. (ii) Some candidates named Digboi as an off-shore oil field. (c) Sub-parts (i) and (ii) of this question were attempted well by most of the candidates. (iii) Some candidates wrote magnesium, iron, and aluminium instead of manganese. (d) Majority of the candidates attempted both the parts of this question well. 40 Suggestions for teachers Teach students the difference between off shore and on shore oil fields with examples and locations. Lay emphasis on reasoning questions. Guide students to make maps and tables to facilitate learning. [3] MARKING SCHEME Question 7 (a) Advantage They produce large amount of power, which can be used for domestic, industrial and other activities. /renewable/eco-friendly/inexhaustible (b) (i) Natural gas creates less pollution (if used as CNG or LPG) as compared to fossil fuels such as coal or petroleum. (ii) Mumbai High / Aliabet / Bassein/ basin of Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery. (c) (i) Copper is used for making wire and for alloys. (ii) Non-polluting / waste put to good use / residue used as manure / inexhaustible /reduces dependence on fossil fuels/cleans environment. (iii) Manganese is used to make steel tough and rust proof. (d) (i) Aluminium it is used to make utensils, aircrafts, in automobiles, wires. (ii) Bhakra Nangal. Question 8 (a) (b) (c) (d) With reference to the cultivation of tea answer the following: (i) Why is tea grown on hill slopes? (ii) Why tea bushes have to be pruned at regular intervals? With reference to rice cultivation answer the following: (i) Why does the cultivation of rice require a lot of manual labour? (ii) Mention two geographical conditions which suit the cultivation of rice. Give a geographical reason for each of the following: (i) Cotton is a labour-intensive crop. (ii) Jute is retted after it has been harvested. (iii) The growing of pulses is important in India. (i) Why is agriculture important in India? (ii) Name the two main agricultural seasons of India. (iii) What is mixed farming? 41 [2] [2] [3] [3] Comments of Examiners (a)(i) Some candidates wrote the reason for tea cultivation on hill slopes due to aroma, flavour and taste which was incorrect. (ii) A few candidates got confused between the terms pruning and ratooning. (b)(i) The answers given by majority of the candidates reflected lack of understanding of the topic. (ii) Most of the candidates were able to write the two geographical conditions which suit the cultivation of rice. (c) Majority of the candidates were able to answer both the parts of this question. (d) (i) Several candidates could not write the specific points highlighting the importance of agriculture in India. (ii) Many candidates, instead of writing Rabi and Kharif, wrote summer crop and winter crop season. (iii)Mixed farming was not explained correctly by many candidates. Suggestions for teachers Teach the concept of pruning along with its benefits. Ensure that the students learn the correct range of temperature and the rainfall requirement of crops. Give ample practice in reasoningtype questions. Explain that growing of pulses is important as it is source of protein, leguminous crop; it replenishes soil fertility and fixes nitrogen. Lay stress on the important geographical terms so that students can retain them and write the correct terminology in the answers. Train students to write complete and precise answers. MARKING SCHEME Question 8 (a) (i) Tea cannot bear stagnant water and so sloping ground is suitable. (ii) Pruning encourages the production of fresh leaves and shoots / To keep it at a low height to facilitate plucking. (b) (i) Rice has to be transplanted in puddled fields for better crop / it has to be harvested carefully by sickle all this require lot of labour. (ii) Temperature 20 C - 32 C/ 16 C - 32 C Rain 150 300 cm (c) Soil alluvial with a subsoil of clay. (Any two) (i) Cotton is propagated by sowing seeds on the farm / Cotton has to be protected against weevils and other insects, therefore, pesticides have to be sprayed / Cotton is a soil exhausting crop, therefore, fertilizers have to be used / Mechanized harvesting of cotton is not possible, has to be done manually which goes on for three months. (Any one) (ii) Submerging the harvested jute stalks in clean running water facilitates the removal of the fibre from the bark /softening by microbiological process. (iii) Pulses are a source of proteins, particularly for the vegetarians/ good as a rotation crop/ leguminous, therefore has nitrogen fixing quality in the soil/used as cattle feed. (Any one) 42 (d) (i) It is important as it provides employment, raw material for industries and export surplus/provides food and fodder. (ii) Rabi / Kharif (iii) It is growing of crops along with an allied occupation such as dairy farming, bee keeping etc. Question 9 (a) (i) Name the private sector iron and steel plant of India. (ii) From where does it get its supply of: 1. Iron ore 2. Manganese 3. Coal? [2] (b) Mention any two problems faced by the cotton textile industry of India. [2] (c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3] (d) (i) Silk industry is doing particularly well in Karnataka. (ii) Petrochemical products are gaining popularity in modern times. (iii) The electronics industry is proving to be an asset for our country in the field of education. Name the following: [3] (i) A city most famous for electronics and hence called The Electronics Capital of India . (ii) The location of an iron and steel industry set up with German collaboration. (iii) A by-product of sugar industry which is used in the manufacture of wax and shoe polish. 43 Comments of Examiners (a) (i) Most candidates wrote the name of the private sector iron and steel plant in India correctly. (ii) Some candidates, instead of writing the mining centres, wrote the names of the states. (b) This was a well attempted question by most of the candidates. (c) (i) Most of the candidates mentioned correct geographical reason for good performance of silk industry in Karnataka. (ii) Many candidates wrote the correct geographical reason for gain in popularity of Petrochemical products in modern times. However, some candidates wrote about petroleum products. (iii) Majority of the candidates wrote general factors, without relating them to the field of education. (iv) Most of the candidates answered both parts of this question correctly. Suggestions for teachers Ensure that students learn the areas/mines from where the minerals are obtained. Explain, with examples, the meaning of petrochemical products, the reasons for popularity of petrochemicals products and the reason for concentration of petrochemical industry. Teach, at least three by-products, of sugar industry along with the uses. - Use flow charts and mind maps to teach key terms and associated activities MARKING SCHEME Question 9 (a) (i)Tata iron and steel company (TISCO)/Tata Steel 1. 2. 3. Gurumahsani in Mayurganj, Naomundi in Singhbum. Joda in Keonjhar / Naomundi. Jharia / Bokaro (b) Agro-based industry, therefore the fluctuation in the supply of raw material / low productivity of labour / obsolete machinery and outdated methods of production / sick industrial units / shortage of power / competition from other countries like Egypt / competition from synthetic fibre. (Any two) (c) (i) Favourable climate for rearing silkworms (bombyx mori) / Soft water free from alkaline salt is available / Traditional occupation therefore plenty of skilled labour. (Any two) (ii) Petrochemicals are cost effective, durable, cheaper, and available in plenty/generation of employment/not dependent on agriculture. (iii) Computer, IWB, Multimedia presentation, laptop, palmtop, eBooks, e-content etc. is helpful in education field. (d) (i) Bengaluru (ii) It is in Sundergarh district of Odisha at the confluence of Sankha and Koel in Rourkela. (iii) Press mud. 44 Question 10 (a) Give two reasons for the means of transport being called the lifelines of a nation s economy. [2] (b) Give two ways in which rail transport is useful for the people of India. [2] (c) (i) (ii) (iii) [3] (d) Give three reasons as to why airways are becoming a popular means of transport in modern India. State one advantage of inland waterways. State one advantage of roadways. State one disadvantage of water transport. Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates answered this part correctly. (b) Majority of the candidates were able to write two correct ways in which rail transport is useful for the people of India. (c)(i) Many candidates got confused inland waterways with overseas transport. (ii) Most of the candidates stated one advantage of roadways correctly. (iii) One disadvantage of water transport was stated correctly by most of the candidates. (d) This was a well attempted question 45 Suggestions for teachers Clearly explain to students, the difference between inlandwaterways and sea routes. Teach both positive and negative aspects of the different modes of transport. Conduct quizzes and group discussions for active participation of students in the class. Thorough revision can help in improving performance. Lay emphasis on reasoning questions. Do a constant revision of the topics taught. Train students to write complete and precise answers. [3] MARKING SCHEME Question 10 (a) Means of transport help the economy by helping in movement of goods & raw material for industrial growth / export & import / infrastructure development / growth of tertiary sector. (b) Railways: - (c) Easy movement of bulky goods. It has brought the villages close to cities. helps during natural calamities. Journey is comfortable. Provides employment. (i) It is cheaper, eco-friendly/low maintenance. (ii) Cheaper / door to door service / safer movement of goods / links other means of transport. (iii) It is time consuming / depends on whether / can cause sea sickness. (d) Airways are faster. Comfortable Can cross natural barriers with ease. Provide quick help in natural calamities. Question 11 (a) Give two reasons as to why there is a need for safe waste disposal. [2] (b) How can waste be reused? Explain with the help of an example. [2] (c) Mention one way in which waste accumulation has an effect on the following: [3] (i) (ii) (iii) (d) aquatic life terrestrial life landscape What do you mean by the following terms? (i) (ii) (iii) Segregation. Composting. Dumping. 46 [3] Comments of Examiners (a) Most of the candidates were able to answer this question. (b) Majority of the candidates were unable to write how waste could be reused. Some candidates, although not being able to write how waste could be reused were able to give correct examples. A few candidates were unable to give the correct example to reuse the waste. (c) (i) Some candidates wrote about oil spills. (ii) Most of the candidates answered correctly. (iii) Most of the candidates mentioned the correct way in which waste accumulation has an effect on the landscape. (d) (i) Majority of the candidates could not write the specific points highlighting the meaning of the term segregation. Sub-parts (ii) and (iii) of this question were well attempted by majority of the candidates. Suggestions for teachers Explain clearly about wastes, their types and methods of their safe disposal. Discuss concepts of reduce, reuse and recycling of wastes through examples. Instruct students to read and understand the question carefully before answering it. Lay emphasis on reasoning questions. Train students by giving frequent practise to write complete and precise answers with the key words. Train students to learn the important geographical terms and associated activities related to them. MARKING SCHEME Question 11 (a) - waste accumulation causes pollution of air, soil & water and so it needs to be managed properly. It leads to spread of diseases. foul smell spoils scenic beauty. (b) Waste can be reused by giving the discarded material another shape or form i.e. waste paper can be reused by making paper bags, discarded bottles can be used for storage purpose. (c) (i) Aquatic life: fish & other aquatic animals may die due to pollution created by waste. (ii) Terrestrial life: Waste looks ugly, leads to foul smell, attract insects, rodents etc. pollute air, water, harms plant kingdom. (iii) Landscape: It makes the landscape look ugly. (d) (i) Segregation It means dividing the waste separately by sorting degradable from nondegradable substances. (ii) Composting It is an aerobic method of decomposing of organic waste. (iii) Dumping In this method waste is dumped in open low-lying area far from the city. 47 Topics found difficult / confusing by candidates Suggestions for candidates Toposheet Six figures grid reference, identification of drainage pattern, Identification of conventional symbols. Map pointing Thar desert, Wular Lake, Kanara coast, Mount Kanchenjunga, location of Chennai and Singhbhum. Retreating monsoon Chemical properties of black soil. Littoral forest. Traditional method of irrigation. Industrial use of copper Rice cultivation especially its transplantation, harvesting, weeding. Electronic industry education field. Reuse of waste. Avoid selective study. Study all chapters thoroughly following the scope of the syllabus. Clarify all your doubts about any topic related to the syllabus before examination from your teacher. Practise answering questions based on Survey of India Map sheet and marking of a location and its naming on the outline map of India. Use arrows in maps to avoid overcrowding. Read the question carefully not only before writing the examination but also after writing the answer to avoid missing any points. Answer every question to the point and precise. Long drawn out explanations are not required. Lay stress on comprehending technical terms. Fasten the map properly inside the answer booklet. Write all differences-based questions in a tabular form. Solve previous years ICSE question papers and discuss all doubts with your teacher. Write key words in the answers very clearly. Leave a line after every answer. Write the Question number correctly. Write neatly and legibly. 48

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Additional Info : ICSE Class X Notes 2024 : History and Civics, Geography
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