
	Trending ▼ ICSE CBSE 10th ISC CBSE 12th CTET GATE UGC NET Vestibulares ResFinder

Paper 1

20 pages, 0 questions, 0 questions with responses, 0 total responses,

	gaurav61	+Fave Message
	Profile Timeline Uploads

Home > gaurav61 >

Formatting page ...

PAPER-I Signature and Name of Invigilator 1. (Signature) __________________________ (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................ (To be filled by the Candidate) Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ J 00 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) 11 Time : 1 1/4 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 20 Test Booklet Code Instructions for the Candidates 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the oval as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : A B C D where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the Answer Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in the ovals in the Answer Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the Answer Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Answer sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. W-00 W [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 1. 2. - (60) , (50) 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) - OMR OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : A B C D (C) 5. - I - II - , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. - , , , , , 9. - OMR - 10. / 11. ( ) 12. P.T.O. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY 1 21 41 2 22 42 3 23 24 43 44 6 25 26 45 46 7 27 8 9 28 47 48 29 49 10 30 50 11 31 51 12 13 32 33 52 53 14 34 54 15 35 55 16 36 56 17 18 19 37 38 57 58 39 40 Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained 59 60 4 5 20 Total Marks Obtained (in words) ........................................... (in figures) .......................................... Signature & Name of the Coordinator ................................... (Evaluation) W-00 Date ......................... 2 Paper I I Note : : 1. This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions. In case more than 50 questions are attempted, only the first 50 questions will be evaluated. (60) (2) (50) (50) (50) 1. , (A) (B) (C) (D) 2. (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) 3. (A) ( ) (B) (C) ( ) (D) ( ) 4. A research paper is a brief report of research work based on (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) Primary Data only (B) Secondary Data only (C) Both Primary and Secondary Data (D) None of the above 2. Newton gave three basic laws of motion. This research is categorized as (A) Descriptive Research (B) Sample Survey (C) Fundamental Research (D) Applied Research 3. A group of experts in a specific area of knowledge assembled at a place and prepared a syllabus for a new course. The process may be termed as (A) Seminar (B) Workshop (C) Conference (D) Symposium 4. In the process of conducting research Formulation of Hypothesis is followed by (A) Statement of Objectives (B) Analysis of Data (C) Selection of Research Tools (D) Collection of Data W-00 3 P.T.O. Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 5 to 10 : All historians are interpreters of text if they be private letters, Government records or parish birthlists or whatever. For most kinds of historians, these are only the necessary means to understanding something other than the texts themselves, such as a political action or a historical trend, whereas for the intellectual historian, a full understanding of his chosen texts is itself the aim of his enquiries. Of course, the intellectual history is particularly prone to draw on the focus of other disciplines that are habitually interpreting texts for purposes of their own, probing the reasoning that ostensibly connects premises and conclusions. Furthermore, the boundaries with adjacent subdisciplines are shifting and indistinct : the history of art and the history of science both claim a certain autonomy, partly just because they require specialised technical skills, but both can also be seen as part of a wider intellectual history, as is evident when one considers, for example, the common stock of knowledge about cosmological beliefs or moral ideals of a period. Like all historians, the intellectual historian is a consumer rather than a producer of methods . His distinctiveness lies in which aspect of the past he is trying to illuminate, not in having exclusive possession of either a corpus of evidence or a body of techniques. That being said, it does seem that the label intellectual history attracts a disproportionate share of misunderstanding. It is alleged that intellectual history is the history of something that never really mattered. The long dominance of the historical profession by political historians bred a kind of philistinism, an unspoken belief that power and its exercise was what mattered . The prejudice was reinforced by the assertion that political action was never really the outcome of principles or ideas that were more flapdoodle . The legacy of this precept is still discernible in the tendency to require ideas to have licensed the political class before they can be deemed worthy of intellectual attention, as if there were some reasons why the history of art or science, of philosophy or literature, were somehow of interest and significance than the history of Parties or Parliaments. Perhaps in recent years the mirror-image of this philistinism has been more common in the claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression or sophistication do not matter, as if they were only held by a minority. Answer the following questions : 5. An intellectual historian aims to fully understand (A) the chosen texts of his own (B) political actions (C) historical trends (D) his enquiries 6. Intellectual historians do not claim exclusive possession of (A) conclusions (B) any corpus of evidence (C) distinctiveness (D) habitual interpretation 7. The misconceptions about intellectual history stem from (A) a body of techniques (B) the common stock of knowledge (C) the dominance of political historians (D) cosmological beliefs 8. What is philistinism ? (A) Reinforcement of prejudice (B) Fabrication of reasons (C) The hold of land-owning classes (D) Belief that power and its exercise matter 9. Knowledge of cosmological beliefs or moral ideas of a period can be drawn as part of (A) literary criticism (B) history of science (C) history of philosophy (D) intellectual history 10. The claim that ideas of any one is of systematic expression do not matter, as if they were held by a minority, is (A) to have a licensed political class (B) a political action (C) a philosophy of literature (D) the mirror-image of philistinism W-00 4 (5 10) : , , , , , , , , , , : , - : , , , , , ( ), , , , , ( ) - , : 5. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 6. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 7. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 8. ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 9. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 10. , , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - W-00 5 P.T.O. 11. Public communication tends to occur within a more 11. (A) (C) (D) formal structure 12. , ( ) ? (A) ( ) (B) (C) (D) 13. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) - 14. (A) channelisation mediation (C) encoding (D) decoding 13. Effective communication needs a supportive (A) economic environment (B) political environment (C) social environment (D) multi-cultural environment 14. 12. Transforming thoughts, ideas and messages into verbal and non-verbal signs is referred to as (B) (D) convenient structure (C) political structure (B) (A) complex structure (B) A major barrier in the transmission of cognitive data in the process of communication is an individual s (A) (A) personality (B) expectation (B) (C) social status (C) (D) (D) coding ability 15. When communicated, institutionalised stereotypes become 15. (A) myths (B) reasons (C) experiences (D) convictions W-00 6 , (A) (B) (C) (D) 16. 16. (B) , : pre-disposition (C) , ______ (A) (B) (C) (D) 17. In mass communication, selective perception is dependent on the receiver s (A) competence receptivity (D) ethnicity 17. Determine the relationship between the pair of words NUMERATOR : DENOMINATOR and then select the pair of words from the following which have a similar relationship : (A) ( ) : (A) fraction : decimal (B) : (B) divisor : quotient (C) : ( ) (C) top : bottom (D) : (D) dividend : divisor 18. 18. Find the wrong number in the sequence : 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, 165 (A) 130 (C) 19. (B) (B) (C) W-00 19. If HOBBY is coded as IOBY and LOBBY is coded as MOBY; then BOBBY is coded as (D) OOBY DOBY COBY (B) (C) (D) 165 153 (A) BOBY 20. (A) 130 142 (D) 165 153 (HOBBY) (IOBY) (LOBBY) (MOBY) ; (BOBBY) (A) BOBY (C) DOBY 20. The letters in the first set have certain relationship. On the basis of this relationship, make the right choice for the second set : K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ? (A) 10/8 (B) 10/18 (C) 11/19 (D) 10/19 142 (B) COBY (D) OOBY : K/T : 11/20 :: J/R : ? (A) 10/8 (C) 7 (B) (D) 10/19 P.T.O. 11/19 10/18 21. A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 , ? If A = 5, B = 6, C = 7, D = 8 and so on, what do the following numbers stand for ? 17, 19, 20, 9, 8 (A) Plane (B) Moped (C) Motor (D) Tonga 21. The price of oil is increased by 25%. If the expenditure is not allowed to increase, the ratio between the reduction in consumption and the original consumption is (A) 1 : 3 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 5 (D) 1 : 6 22. How many 8 s are there in the following sequence which are preceded by 5 but not immediately followed by 3 ? 5837586385458476 558358758285 (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 3 23. 24. If a rectangle were called a circle, a circle a point, a point a triangle and a triangle a square, the shape of a wheel is (A) Rectangle (B) Circle (C) Point (D) Triangle 24. , , (A) (B) (C) (D) 25. Which one of the following methods is best suited for mapping the distribution of different crops as provided in the standard classification of crops in India ? (A) Pie diagram (B) Chorochromatic technique (C) Isopleth technique (D) Dot method 25. ? 22. 23. W-00 17, 19, 20, 9, 8 (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) 25% , (A) 1 : 3 (B) (C) (D) 1 : 6 1:5 1:4 8 5 3 ? 5837586385458476 558358758285 (A) 4 (B) (C) (D) 3 7 (A) (B) - (C) (D) 8 5 26. Which one of the following does not come under the methods of data classification ? (A) Qualitative (B) Normative (C) Spatial (D) Quantitative 26. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 27. Which one of the following is not a source of data ? (A) Administrative records (B) Population census (C) GIS (D) Sample survey 27. ? (A) (B) (C) . . . (D) 28. If the statement some men are cruel is false, which of the following statements/statement are/is true ? (i) All men are cruel. (ii) No men are cruel. (iii) Some men are not cruel. (A) (i) and (iii) (B) (i) and (ii) (C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) only 28. / ? (i) (ii) (iii) (A) (i) (iii) (B) (i) (ii) (C) (ii) (iii) (D) (iii) 29. The octal number system consists of the following symbols : (A) 0 7 (B) 0 9 (C) 0 9, A F (D) None of the above 29. : The binary equivalent of ( 19)10 in 30. 30. (A) 0 7 (B) 0 9 (C) 0 9, A F (D) signed magnitude system is (A) 11101100 (B) 11101101 (C) 10010011 (D) None of these W-00 ( 19)10 - (A) 11101100 (B) 11101101 (C) 10010011 (D) 9 P.T.O. 31. 31. DNS in internet technology stands for DNS (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) Dynamic Name System (B) Domain Name System (C) Distributed Name System (D) None of these 32. HTML stands for (A) Hyper Text Markup Language (B) Hyper Text Manipulation Language (C) Hyper Text Managing Links (D) Hyper Text Manipulating Links 32. (HTML) (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. Which of the following is type of LAN ? (A) Ethernet (B) Token Ring (C) FDDI (D) All of the above 33. LAN ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. Which of the following statements is true ? (A) Smart cards do not require an operating system. (B) Smart cards and PCs use some operating system. (C) COS is smart card operating system. (D) The communication between reader and card is in full duplex mode. 34. ? (A) - (B) . . (C) COS (D) 35. The Ganga Action Plan was initiated during the year (A) 1986 (B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1992 35. (A) 1986 (B) 1988 (C) 1990 (D) 1992 W-00 10 36. 37. Identify the correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in the power sector in India : (A) Thermal > nuclear > hydro > wind (B) Thermal > hydro > nuclear > wind (C) Hydro > nuclear > thermal > wind (D) Nuclear > hydro > wind > thermal 36. Chromium as a contaminant in drinking water in excess of permissible levels, causes 37. : (A) > > > (B) > > > (C) > > > (D) > > > (A) Skeletal damage (A) - (B) Gastrointestinal problem (B) (C) Dermal and nervous problems (C) / (D) / (D) Liver/Kidney problems 38. The main precursors of winter smog are 38. (A) N2O (A) N2O and hydrocarbons (B) (B) SO2 and hydrocarbons 39. Flash floods are caused when (A) the atmosphere is convectively unstable and there is considerable vertical wind shear (B) (A) ( ) ( ) (B) (C) ( ) (D) the atmosphere is convectively unstable with no vertical windshear (D) winds are catabatic W-00 ( ) ( ) the atmosphere is stable (C) SO2 (D) SO2 (D) SO2 and ozone 39. NOx (C) NOx and hydrocarbons (C) - 11 P.T.O. 40. In mega cities of India, the dominant source of air pollution is 40. (A) (C) (D) commercial sector 41. 41. The first Open University in India was set up in the State of (D) municipal waste (C) thermal power ( ) (B) (A) transport sector (B) ( ) ? (A) Andhra Pradesh (A) (B) Delhi (B) (C) Himachal Pradesh (C) (D) (D) Tamil Nadu 42. 42. Most of the Universities in India are funded by (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) the Central Government (B) the State Governments (C) the University Commission Grants (D) Private bodies and Individuals 43. Which of the following organizations looks after the quality of Technical and Management education in India ? 43. - - ? (A) NCTE (A) NCTE (B) (C) (B) AICTE (D) CSIR W-00 MCI (C) MCI AICTE (D) CSIR 12 44. Consider the following statements : 44. Identify the statement which implies natural justice. (A) The principle of natural justice is followed by the Courts. (A) (B) (B) (C) Justice delayed denied. is justice Natural justice is an inalienable right of a citizen (C) (D) A reasonable opportunity of being heard must be given. 45. (D) 45. The President of India is (A) (C) the Head of Government (C) both Head of the State and the Head of the Government (D) None of the above 46. Who among the following holds office during the pleasure of the President of India ? (D) (B) (B) (A) the Head of State 46. ? (A) Chief Election Commissioner (C) General of India (B) (A) (B) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission (C) (D) Comptroller and Auditor (D) Governor of a State W-00 13 P.T.O. Not for Visually Handicapped Candidates Questions 47 to 49 are based upon the following diagram in which there are three interlocking circles A, P and S where A stands for Artists, circle P for Professors and circle S for Sportspersons. Different regions in the figure are lettered from a to f : 47. 48. 49. W-00 47 49 , A, P S A , P S a f The region which represents artists who are neither sportsmen nor professors. (A) d (B) e (C) b (D) g 47. The region which represents professors, who are both artists and sportspersons. (A) a (B) c (C) d (D) g 48. The region which represents professors, who are also sportspersons, but not artists. (A) e (B) f (C) c (D) g 49. ? (A) d (B) e (C) b (D) g ? (A) a (B) c (C) d (D) g ? (A) e (B) f (C) c (D) g 14 Measurements of some variable X were made at an interval of 1 minute from 10 A.M. to 10:20 A.M. The data, thus, obtained is as follows : 50 52 X 10 10:20 : X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 X : 60, 62, 65, 64, 63, 61, 66, 65, 70, 68 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64 63, 62, 64, 69, 65, 64, 66, 67, 66, 64 Questions 50 to 52 are based on the following data : 50. The value of X, which is exceeded 10% of the time in the duration of measurement, is 50. 10% X X (A) 69 (A) 69 (B) 68 (B) 68 (C) 67 (C) 67 (D) 66 (D) 66 51. The value of X, which is exceeded 90% of the time in the duration of measurement, is 51. 90% X X (A) 63 (A) 63 (B) 62 (B) 62 (C) 61 (C) 61 (D) 60 (D) 60 52. The value of X, which is exceeded 50% of the time in the duration of measurement, is 52. X 50% X (A) 66 (A) 66 (B) 65 (B) 65 (C) 64 (C) 64 (D) 63 W-00 (D) 63 15 P.T.O. For Visually Handicapped Candidates only Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions from 47to 52 : All the perceptions of the human mind resolve themselves into two distinct kinds, which I shall call impressions and ideas. The difference betwixt these consists in the degrees of force and liveliness, with which they strike upon the mind, make their way into our thought or consciousness. Those perceptions which enter with most force and violence, we may name impressions; and under this name I comprehend all our sensations, passions and emotions, as they make their first appearance in the soul. By ideas I mean the faint images of these in thinking and reasoning; such as, for instance, are all the perceptions excited by the present discourse, excepting only those which arise from the sight and touch and excepting the immediate pleasure or uneasiness it may occasion. I believe it will not be very necessary to employ many words in explaining this distinction. Every one of himself will readily believe, perceive the difference betwixt feeling and thinking. The common degrees of these are easily distinguished; though it is not impossible but in particular instances they may very nearly approach to each other. Thus, in sleep, in a fever, in madness, or in any very violent emotions of soul, our ideas may approach to our impressions : as on the other hand it sometimes happens, that our impressions are so faint and low, that we cannot distinguish them from our ideas. But not withstanding this near resemblance in a few instances, they are in general so very different, that no one can make a scruple to rank them under distinct heads, and assign to each a peculiar name to mark the difference. There is another division of our perceptions, which it will be convenient to observe, and which extends itself both to our impressions and ideas. This division is into simple and complex. Simple perceptions, or impressions and ideas, are such as admit of no distinction nor separation. The complex are the contrary to these, and may be distinguished into parts. Though a particular colour, taste and smell, are qualities all united together in this apple, it is easy to perceive they are not the same, but are at least distinguishable from each other. 47. The passage mainly discusses the origin of (A) impressions (B) ideas (C) sensations (D) passions 48. Perceptions that have force may be called (A) impression (B) emotions (C) difference (D) thinking 49. Which of the following is excepted from perceptions ? (A) Faint images of reasoning (B) Force of liveliness (C) Those which arise from the sight and touch (D) The common degree of distinction 50. Ideas may approach impressions in (A) resemblance (C) readiness (B) madness (D) consciousness 51. Simple perceptions and impressions have no (A) ideas (B) scruples (C) separation (D) quality 52. Impressions and ideas, in general, are so different, each can be given a particular name to identity (A) the force (B) the similarity (C) the difference (D) the feeling W-00 16 - (47-52) : , , , , , , , ; , , , , - :, , , , ( ) : - , , , , , , , , , , 47. (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. (A) (B) (C) (D) 49. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. (A) (B) (C) (D) 51. ? (A) (B) ( ) (C) (D) 52. : (A) (B) (C) (D) W-00 17 P.T.O. 53. For maintaining an effective discipline in the class, the teacher should 53. (A) Allow students to do what they like. (B) Give the students problem to solve. (A) (C) (D) some (D) Deal with them politely and firmly. 54. (B) Deal with the students strictly. (C) 54. An effective teaching aid is one which - , (A) is colourful and good looking - (B) activates all faculties (B) (C) is visible to all students (C) (D) easy to prepare and use 55. (A) (D) 55. Those teachers are popular among students who (A) award good grades (C) The essence of an classroom environment is 56. effective - : (C) (D) pin-drop silence (B) (D) strict discipline W-00 - ( ) lively student-teacher interaction (C) (A) (A) a variety of teaching aids (B) (D) (D) take classes on extra tuition fee 56. help them solve their problems (C) (B) (A) develop intimacy with them (B) , 18 57. 57. (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. On the first day of his class, if a teacher is asked by the students to introduce himself, he should , (A) - (A) ask them to meet after the class (B) tell them about himself in brief (C) ignore the demand and start teaching (D) scold the student for this unwanted demand 58. Moral values can be effectively inculcated among the students when the teacher (A) frequently talks about values (C) (D) - (B) (B) himself practices them (C) tells stories of great persons (D) talks of Gods and Goddesses 59. The essential researcher are qualities of 59. a (A) (A) spirit of free enquiry (B) (C) (B) reliance on observation and evidence (D) (C) systematization or theorizing of knowledge (D) all the above 60. 60. Research is conducted to I. Generate new knowledge II. Not to develop a theory III. Obtain research degree IV. Reinterpret existing knowledge Which of the above are correct ? (A) (B) III, II & IV (C) W-00 I, III & II II, I & III (D) I, III & IV 19 : I. II. III. IV. ? (A) I, III II (B) III, II IV (C) II, I III (D) I, III IV P.T.O. Space For Rough Work W-00 20

Formatting page ...

gaurav61 chat

Horizontal lines at:
Guest Horizontal lines at:
AutoRM Data:
Box geometries: