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GATE 2018 : Engineering Sciences [Section G / Food Technology] (with Final Answer Keys)

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Food Technology XE-G GATE 2018 XE (G): Q.1 Q. 1 Q. 9 carry one mark each & Q. 10 Q. 22 carry two marks each. Which of the following is oil soluble pigment present in fruits and vegetables? (A) Flavonoids Q.2 Q.3 Q.4 Q.5 (B) Carotenoids (C) Anthocyanins (D) Tannins Which of the following represent the group of saturated fatty acids? (A) Lauric, Myristic, Arachidic (B) Palmitic, Linoleic, Linolenic (C) Capric, Stearic & Oleic (D) Behenic, Caprylic, Arachidonic The anti-nutritional factor present in fava bean is (A) Gossypol (B) Curcine (C) Vicine (D) Cyanogen Irradiation carried out to reduce viable non-spore forming pathogenic bacteria using a dose between 3 to 10 kGy is called (A) Radurization (B) Thermoradiation (C) Radappertization (D) Radicidation Identify the correct statement related to the viscosity of Newtonian fluids from the following (A) It is not influenced by temperature (B) It increases with shearing rate (C) It decreases with shearing rate (D) It is not influenced by shearing rate Q.6 Adult male Wistar rats were fed with a protein based diet. Total 150 g of protein was ingested per animal. If the average weight increased from 110 g to 350 g after the end of the experiment, the Protein efficiency ratio of the given protein would be _______. (up to two decimal points) Q.7 The initial moisture content of a food on wet basis is 50.76%. Its moisture content (%) on dry basis is _______.(up to two decimal points) XE-G 1/4 Food Technology XE-G GATE 2018 Q.8 The oxygen transmission rate through a 2.54 x 10-3 cm thick low density polyethylene film with air on one side and inert gas on the other side is 3.5 x 10-6 mL cm-2 s-1. Oxygen partial pressure difference across the film is 0.21 atm. The permeability coefficient of the film to oxygen is _______ x 10-11 mL (STP) cm cm-2 s-1 (cm Hg)-1. Q.9 Ambient air at 30 C dry bulb temperature and 80% relative humidity was heated to a dry bulb temperature of 80 C in a heat exchanger by indirect heating. The amount of moisture gain (g kg-1 dry air) during the process would be _______. Q.10 Match the commodity in Group I with the bioactive constituent in Group II Group I P. Ginger Q. Green tea R. Spinach S. Turmeric Group II 1. Lutein 2. Gingerol 3. Curcumin 4. Epigallocatechin gallate (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (D) P-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4 Q.11 Match the process operation in Group I with the separated constituent in Group II Group I P. Extraction Q. Degumming R. Neutralization S. Bleaching (A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 Group II 1. Phospholipids 2. Free fatty acids 3. Pigments 4. Crude oil (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 Q.12 Match the spoilage symptom in Group I with the causative microorganism in Group II Group I P. Green rot of eggs Q. Putrid swell in canned fish R. Red bread S. Yellow discoloration of meat (A) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 XE-G Group II 1. Micrococcus spp. 2. Serratia marcescens 3. Pseudomonas fluorescens 4. Clostridium sporogenes (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 2/4 Food Technology XE-G GATE 2018 Q.13 Match the fermented product in Group I with the base material in Group II Group I P. Sake Q. Chhurpi R. Natto S. Sauerkraut Group II 1. Milk 2. Cabbage 3. Rice 4. Soybean (A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4 Q.14 Match the operation in Group I with the process in Group II Group I P. Cleaning Q. Grading R. Size reduction S. Filtration Group II 1. Quality separation 2. Clarification 3. Screening 4. Comminution (A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2 (C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 Q.15 Out of 7 principles of HACCP system, 4 are listed below. Arrange these principles in the order in which they are applied. (P) Conduct a hazard analysis (Q) Establish monitoring process (R) Establish critical limit (S) Establish record keeping and documentation process (A) P, R, Q, S (B) Q, R, P, S (C) P, Q, R, S (D) R, S, P, Q Q.16 Apple juice of 10% total solids (TS) is being concentrated in a single effect evaporator working with a surface condenser to 40% TS under a vacuum of 20 kPa. After some time the vacuum pump stops but the evaporation process continued. Choose the combination of possible implications from the following. (P) Product quality is affected (Q) Substantial increase in thermal energy requirement (R) Decrease in the rate of evaporation (A) P & Q XE-G (B) Q & R (C) R & P (D) P,Q & R 3/4 Food Technology XE-G GATE 2018 Q.17 Identify an example of a classical diffusional mass transfer process without involving heat, among the following. (A) Drying of food grains (B) Carbonation of beverages (C) Distillation of alcohol (D) Concentration of fruit juice Q.18 For an enzyme catalyzed reaction S P , the kinetic parameters are: [S] = 40 M, V0 = 9.6 M s-1 and Vmax = 12.0 M s-1. The Km of the enzyme in M will be _______.(up to one decimal points) Q.19 A microbial sample taken at 10 AM contained 1x105 CFU/mL. The count reached to 1x1010 CFU/mL at 8 PM of the same day. The growth rate (h-1) of the microorganism would be _______.(up to two decimal points) Q.20 Black pepper is ground from an equivalent particle size of 6 mm to 0.12 mm using a 10 hp motor. Assuming Rittinger s equation and that 1 hp = 745.7 W, the power (hp) of motor required to fine grind black pepper to 0.08 mm would be _______.(up to two decimal points) Q.21 Green pea (average diameter 0.8 cm) is frozen in a blast freezer operating at -40 C and with a surface heat transfer coefficient of 30 W m-2 K-1. The thermal conductivity of pea is 2.5 W m-1K-1, and latent heat of crystallization is 2.74 x 102 kJ kg-1. If the freezing point of pea is -1 C and the density is 1160 kg m-3, the freezing time in minutes will be _______.(up to two decimal points) Q.22 The rate of heat transfer from a metal plate is 1000 W m-2. The surface temperature of the plate is 120 C and ambient temperature is 20 C. The convective heat transfer coefficient (W m-2 C-1) using the Newton s law of cooling will be _______. END OF THE QUESTION PAPER XE-G 4/4 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 1 MCQ GA A 1 2 MCQ GA C 1 3 MCQ GA B 1 4 MCQ GA B 1 5 MCQ GA B 1 6 MCQ GA A 2 7 MCQ GA D 2 8 MCQ GA D 2 9 MCQ GA B 2 10 MCQ GA C 2 1 MCQ XE A D 1 2 MCQ XE A A 1 3 NAT XE A 0.01 to 0.01 1 4 NAT XE A 5 to 5 1 5 NAT XE A 0.29 to 0.32 1 6 NAT XE A 250 to 250 1 7 NAT XE A 108 to 108 1 8 MCQ XE A B 2 9 MCQ XE A C 2 10 NAT XE A 3 to 3 2 11 NAT XE A 0.04 to 0.04 2 1 MCQ XE B B 1 2 MCQ XE B A 1 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 3 MCQ XE B D 1 4 MCQ XE B A 1 5 MCQ XE B C 1 6 MCQ XE B B 1 7 MCQ XE B A 1 8 NAT XE B 4 to 4 1 9 NAT XE B 39 to 42 1 10 MCQ XE B B 2 11 MCQ XE B C 2 12 MCQ XE B C 2 13 MCQ XE B A 2 14 NAT XE B 900 to 990 2 15 NAT XE B 40 to 42 2 16 NAT XE B 2.9 to 3.1 2 17 NAT XE B 107 to 127 2 18 NAT XE B 440000 to 442000 2 19 NAT XE B 0.001 to 0.002 2 20 NAT XE B 30 to 45 2 21 NAT XE B 4800 to 4800 2 22 NAT XE B 1200 to 1350 2 1 MCQ XE C C 1 2 MCQ XE C A 1 3 MCQ XE C B 1 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 4 MCQ XE C C 1 5 MCQ XE C A 1 6 MCQ XE C D 1 7 MCQ XE C C 1 8 NAT XE C 2 to 2 1 9 NAT XE C 6 to 6 1 10 MCQ XE C B 2 11 MCQ XE C A 2 12 MCQ XE C B 2 13 NAT XE C 430 to 500 2 14 NAT XE C 124 to 124 2 15 NAT XE C 2.60 to 2.70 2 16 NAT XE C 59.00 to 60.00 2 17 NAT XE C 1.85 to 2.00 2 18 NAT XE C 132 to 132 2 19 NAT XE C 5.01 to 5.17 2 20 NAT XE C 5 to 5 2 21 NAT XE C 15.5 to 18.5 2 22 NAT XE C 1420 to 1480 2 1 MCQ XE D D 1 2 MCQ XE D A 1 3 MCQ XE D D 1 4 MCQ XE D B 1 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 5 MCQ XE D B 1 6 NAT XE D 52.50 to 53.50 1 7 NAT XE D 27.00 to 28.00 1 8 NAT XE D 80 to 80 1 9 NAT XE D 220.00 to 222.00 1 10 MCQ XE D B 2 11 MCQ XE D B 2 12 MCQ XE D D 2 13 MCQ XE D C 2 14 MCQ XE D C 2 15 MCQ XE D A 2 16 MCQ XE D D 2 17 NAT XE D 195.00 to 197.00 2 18 NAT XE D 0.01 to 0.02 2 19 NAT XE D 14.5 to 15.5 2 20 NAT XE D 26.00 to 27.00 2 21 NAT XE D 3.10 to 3.20 2 22 NAT XE D 13.5 to 14.5 2 1 MCQ XE E B 1 2 MCQ XE E A 1 3 MCQ XE E C 1 4 MCQ XE E A 1 5 MCQ XE E C 1 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 6 MCQ XE E D 1 7 NAT XE E 160.0 to 161.0 1 8 NAT XE E 14.5 to 15.0 1 9 NAT XE E 0.30 to 0.32 1 10 MCQ XE E C 2 11 MCQ XE E C 2 12 MCQ XE E D 2 13 MCQ XE E B 2 14 MCQ XE E A 2 15 MCQ XE E D 2 16 NAT XE E 332.5 to 336.5 2 17 NAT XE E 3.01 to 3.07 2 18 NAT XE E 838.0 to 844.0 2 19 NAT XE E 961.0 to 962.0 2 20 NAT XE E 5.7 to 6.1 2 21 NAT XE E 12950.0 to 13000.0 2 22 NAT XE E 513.0 to 517.0 2 1 MCQ XE F C 1 2 MCQ XE F A 1 3 MCQ XE F D 1 4 MCQ XE F B 1 5 MCQ XE F D 1 6 MCQ XE F B 1 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 7 MCQ XE F A 1 8 NAT XE F 1500.00 to 1500.00 1 9 NAT XE F 48.52 to 48.72 1 10 MCQ XE F D 2 11 MCQ XE F A 2 12 MCQ XE F B 2 13 MCQ XE F D 2 14 MCQ XE F B 2 15 MCQ XE F D 2 16 MCQ XE F C 2 17 MCQ XE F C 2 18 NAT XE F 25.00 to 24.50 2 19 NAT XE F 98.80 to 99.10 2 20 NAT XE F 0.90 to 0.93 2 21 NAT XE F 17.91 to 18.00 2 22 NAT XE F 2600 to 2600 2 1 MCQ XE G B 1 2 MCQ XE G A 1 3 MCQ XE G C 1 4 MCQ XE G D 1 5 MCQ XE G D 1 6 NAT XE G 1.55 to 1.65 1 7 NAT XE G 103.0 to 103.2 1 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 8 NAT XE G 54 to 56 1 9 NAT XE G 0 to 0 1 10 MCQ XE G B 2 11 MCQ XE G C 2 12 MCQ XE G C 2 13 MCQ XE G A 2 14 MCQ XE G D 2 15 MCQ XE G A 2 16 MCQ XE G C 2 17 MCQ XE G B 2 18 NAT XE G 9.8 to 10.2 2 19 NAT XE G 1.1 to 1.8 2 20 NAT XE G 14.5 to 15.5 2 21 NAT XE G 6.0 to 6.4 2 22 NAT XE G 10 to 10 2 1 MCQ XE H B 1 2 MCQ XE H C 1 3 MCQ XE H A 1 4 MCQ XE H B 1 5 MCQ XE H B 1 6 MCQ XE H C 1 7 MCQ XE H D 1 8 MCQ XE H D 1 Q.No. Type Section Key/Range Marks 9 MCQ XE H B 1 10 MCQ XE H A 2 11 MCQ XE H B 2 12 MCQ XE H A 2 13 MCQ XE H B 2 14 NAT XE H 1254 to 1256 2 15 NAT XE H 19.42 to 19.44 2 16 NAT XE H 734.8 to 735.0 2 17 NAT XE H 9.16 to 9.18 2 18 NAT XE H 12.8 to 13.2 2 19 NAT XE H 92.4 to 92.8 2 20 NAT XE H 1.3 to 1.4 2 21 NAT XE H 0.11 to 0.12 2 22 NAT XE H 9.99 to 10.01 2

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