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ICSE Class X Prelims 2025 : Physics (Pawar Public School (PPS), Hadapsar, Pune)

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Arjun Shitole
Pawar Public School (PPS), Hadapsar, Pune
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PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION 1,2024-25 SUBJECT- ENGLISH LANGUAGE Std: X Maximum Marks: 80 Date: 03/12/2024 Duration:2 hr Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. _______________________________________________________________________ Attempt all five questions. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. You are advised to spend no more than 30 minutes in answering Question 1 and 20 minutes in answering Question 2. ___________________________________________________________________________ Question 1 (Do not spend more than 30 minutes on this question.) Write a composition (300 - 350 words) on any one of the following: [20] (a) Write a short story which is based on the proverb- Too many cooks spoil the broth. (b) Mothers play an important role in our life but they hardly get acknowledged for what they do. Narrate an incident when you realised how important your mother is in your life and what did you do to make her feel special. What did you learn in this process? (c) You had to renovate your room. Describe how you incorporated the changes according to your taste. Did it go as you had planned? If not, how did you manage? (d)Children s opinion should be considered with matters concerning them. Express your views either for or against the above statement. (e) Study the picture given below. Write a story or a description or an account of what it suggests to you. Your composition may be about the subject of the picture or you may take suggestions from it; however, there must be a clear connection between the picture and your composition. This paper consists of 6 pages Question 2 Attempt any one from the following [10] (a) You were assigned a responsibility to conduct a street play in school. Write a letter to your friend explaining how you planned out the whole play and also what problems did you face during this process. (b)Your school has organised a picnic to a nearby place for one week. Write a letter to the Principal of your school requesting him/her to change the place and mention the reasons for the same. Question 3 (i) Your school is organising an Inter-School Skit Competition. Write a notice to be put up on the school notice board informing about the same. (ii) Write an email to an eminent stage actor inviting him/her to be the judge for an InterSchool Skit Competition. Question 4 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow- [20] I was born into a middle-class Tamil family in the island town of Rameswaram in the erstwhile Madras state. My father, Jainulabdeen, had neither much formal education nor much wealth; despite these disadvantages, he possessed great innate wisdom and a true generosity of spirit. He had an ideal helpmate in my mother, Ashiamma. I do not recall the exact number of people she fed every day, but I am quite certain that far more outsiders ate with us than all the members of our own family put together. My parents were widely regarded as an ideal couple. My mother s lineage was the more distinguished, one of her forebears having been bestowed the title of Bahadur by the British. I was one of many children a short boy with rather undistinguished looks, born to tall and handsome parents. We lived in our ancestral house, which was built in the middle of the 19th century. It was a fairly large pucca house, made of limestone and brick, on the Mosque Street in Rameswaram. My austere father used to avoid all inessential comforts and luxuries. However, all necessities were provided for, in terms of food, medicine or clothes. In fact, I would say mine was a very secure childhood, both materially and emotionally. I normally ate with my mother, sitting on the floor of the kitchen. She would place a banana leaf before me, on which she then ladled rice and aromatic sambhar, a variety of sharp, home-made pickles and a dollop of fresh coconut chutney. The famous Shiva temple, which made Rameswaram so sacred to pilgrims, was about a ten-minute walk from our house. Our locality was predominantly Muslim, but there were quite a few Hindu families too, living amicably with their Muslim neighbours. There was a very old mosque in our locality where my father would take me for evening prayers. I had not the faintest idea of the meaning of the Arabic prayers chanted, but I was totally convinced that they reached God. When my father came out of the mosque after the prayers, people of different religions Page 2 would be sitting outside, waiting for him. Many of them offered bowls of water to my father who would dip his fingertips in them and say a prayer. This water was then carried home for invalids. I also remember people visiting our home to offer thanks after being cured. My father always smiled and said to them, Thank Allah, the benevolent and merciful. The high priest of Rameswaram temple, Pakshi Lakshmana Sastry, was his very close friend. One of the most vivid memories of my early childhood is of the two men, each in his traditional attire, discussing spiritual matters. When I was old enough to ask questions, I said to my father, What is the relevance of prayer? My father said to me, There is nothing mysterious about prayer. Rather, prayer made possible a communion of the spirit between people. He said to me, When you pray, you transcend your body and become a part of the cosmos, which knows no division of wealth, age, caste, or creed. My father could convey complex spiritual concepts in very simple, down- to-earth Tamil. He once told me, In his own time, in his own place, in what he really is, and in the stage he has reached- good or bad- every human being is a specific element within the whole of the manifest divine Being. So why be afraid of difficulties, sufferings and problems? When troubles come, try to understand the relevance of your sufferings. Adversity always presents opportunities for introspection. Why don t you say this to the people who come to you for help and advice? , I asked my father. He put his hands on my shoulders and looked straight into my eyes. For quite some time he said nothing, as if he was judging my capacity to comprehend his words. Then he answered in a low, deep voice. His answer filled me with a strange energy and enthusiasm: (i) Give the meaning of each word as used in the passage. One-word answers or short phrases will be accepted. Choose the appropriate option [2] 1. lineage (Line 7) (a) progeny (b) sibling (c) orphan (d) origin 2. austere (Line 12) (a) Authoritarian (b) Tolerant (c) Lax (d) Lenient 3. Which word is the opposite of prosperity in the passage? (a) advantage (b)fame (c) adversity (d)frivolous [1] Page 3 (ii) Answer the following: (a) Describe the qualities of the narrator's father, Jainulabdeen. [2] (b)How did the narrator s mother, Ashiamma, contribute to the household s reputation? [2] (c) What did the narrator learn about the purpose of prayer from his father? [2] (d) How did the narrator s father respond when asked why he didn t share his wisdom with others? [2] (e) Where did the narrator s family live in Rameswaram? Who was the narrator s father s close friend and what was his position? [2] (iii) How did the narrator s father convey complex spiritual ideas to his young child? Answer in not more than fifty words. [8] Question 5 (i) Fill in each of the numbered blanks with the correct form of the word given in brackets. Do not copy the passage but write in correct serial order the word or phrase appropriate to the blank space. [4] Example: (0) served Sago pudding is a popular Chinese desert often (0) ___ in many Chinese restaurants. The desert is made of pearl sago which is almost transparent and ___1___(swell) during cooking. Sago ___2___ (obtain) from the trunks of the sago palm which are found in swamps. The palm reaches a height of about ninety metres when fully___3___ (grow). The palms ____4____(cut down) just before they flower. Part of the trunk _____5____(pound) into pulp before it _____6____ (turn) into powder by machine. The powder is later washed and ___7___(dry). It is now called sago flour. This flower is then kneaded into dough and ___8____(pass) through another machine to form the pearl-like grains which we see in sago pudding. (ii) Fill in the blank with an appropriate word(a) They had now jeered ____him whom they had once acclaimed as their hero. (b) Nothing conduces ____ happiness so much as contentment. (c) While cleaning the basement I came______ something I thought I had lost years ago. (d) His views do not accord ____ mine. (e) Birbal is celebrated _____ his witty sayings. (f) Death does not distinguish ______ rich and poor. (g) The child went ______ a lot before recovering completely. (h) The Minister condemned the killings as a crime_______ humanity. Page 4 [4] (iii) Join the following sentences without using and, but or so- [4] 1. We made a mistake in judgement. It is quite obvious. (a) (b) (c) (d) It is quite obvious that we had made a mistake in judgement. It is quite obvious that we have made a mistake in judgement. It is quite obvious that we made a mistake in judgement. It is quite obvious that we were making a mistake in judgement. 2. She completed the assignment. She submitted it on time. (a) Having completed the assignment, she submitted it on time. (b) She completed the assignment, so she submitted it on time. (c) She completed the assignment and then submitted it on time. (d) She submitted it on time as she completed the assignment. 3. The soldier was injured in battle. He continued to fight courageously. (a) (b) (c) (d) As the soldier was injured, he continued the fight courageously. The soldier continued to fight courageously, injured in battle. Injured in battle when the soldier continued to fight courageously. Although injured in battle, the soldier continued to fight courageously. 4. The mountain was steep. They managed to reach the summit before sunset. (a) In spite of the mountain being steep, they managed to reach the summit before sunset. (b) Since the mountain was steep, they managed to reach the summit before sunset. (c) They managed to reach the summit before sunset while the mountain was steep. (d) Despite the summit, they managed to reach it before sunset. (iv) Re-write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each. Make other changes that may be necessary, but do not change the meaning of each sentence. Choose the correct option. [8] 1. As soon as the sun sets, there will be complete darkness here. (Begin: No sooner .) (a) No sooner does the sun sets than there will be complete darkness here. (b)No sooner does the sun sets than there has to be complete darkness here. (c) No sooner does the sun set than there would have to be complete darkness here. (d)No sooner does the sun set than there will be complete darkness here. 2. He had little experience. He managed to complete the project successfully." a) Notwithstanding his lack of experience, he managed to complete the project successfully. b) Notwithstanding he had little experience, he managed to complete the project successfully. c) Notwithstanding he completed the project successfully, he had little experience. d) He had little experience notwithstanding, the project was incomplete. _____________________________________________________________________________ Page 5 3. Can you do it for me? he asked me. (Begin: He asked me ..) (a) He asked me if you could do it for him. (b)He asked me if I can do it for him. (c) He asked me if I could do it for him. (d)He asked me if I will be able do it for him. 2. He has completed his homework on time (Add a question tag) a) He has completed his homework on time, has he? b) He has completed his homework on time, hasn t he? c) He has completed his homework on time, isn t he? d) He had completed his homework on time, hasn t he? 3. The students are being bullied everyday by the boys.(Begin: The boys ) (a) The boys are bullying the students every day. (b)The boys were bullying the students every day. (c) The boys were being bullied by the students every day. (d)The boys have been bullied by the students every day. 4. She avoided speaking too loudly. She did not want to disturb anyone." (Use: lest ) (a) She avoided speaking too loudly lest she disturb anyone. (b) She avoided speaking too loudly lest she should disturb anyone. (c) She avoided speaking too loudly lest she may disturb anyone. (d) She avoided speaking too loudly lest she could disturb anyone. 7. Although I have known him for long, I have not developed a great respect for him. (Begin: In spite of ) (a) In spite of having known him for long, I have not developed a great respect for him. (b)In spite of knowing him for long, I have not developed a great respect for him. (c) In spite of I have known him for long, I have not developed a great respect for him. (d)In spite of knowing him for a long time, I have not developed a great respect for him. 8. Akbar was one of the most successful rulers. (Begin: Very few rulers .) (a) Very few rulers were more successful than Akbar. (b)Very few rulers were successful like Akbar. (c) Very few rulers were as successful as Akbar was. (d)Very few rulers were as successful as Akbar. Page 6 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION- I (2024-25) SUBJECT LITERATURE IN ENGLISH Std: X Max Marks: 80 Date: 11/12/2024 Duration: 2h Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of the paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. The paper has four sections. Section A is compulsory All questions in Section A must be answered. You must attempt one question from each of the Sections B, C and D and one other question from any Section of your choice. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions from this Section) Question 1 Read the following questions and choose the most appropriate response from the choices given below (Please do not copy the question - simply write out in correct serial order the appropriate word or phrase.) [16] (i) Which characteristic trait of Caesar is revealed when he refuses to alter his decision in case of Metellus Cimber? (a) Intelligence (b) Ignorance (c) Humility (d) Arrogance (ii) Which of the given options list the sequence of events in the correct order? (1) During the battle at Philippi, Brutus s army inflicts an early defeat on Octavius troops. (2) Seeing some troops in the distance, Cassius sends Titinius on horseback to check if they are friend or foe . (3) Meanwhile, in another part of the battleground, Cassius learns that his camp has been surrounded by Antony's soldiers and is being attacked. (4) Pindarus, seeing Titinius surrounded by horsemen, assumes that he has fallen into enemy hands and reports to Cassius that he (Titinius) has been taken captive. (5) Next, Cassius instructs his servant Pindarus to climb a hill nearby so that he can give him a detailed account of all that happens to Titinius. (a) 2,4,3,5,1 (b) 4,5,1,3,4 (c) 1,5,2,4,3 (d) 1,3,2,5,4 (iii) What does Strato say when Messala enquires of Brutus? (a) Free from this evil world, you are in, Messala. (b) Free from this ignorant world, you are in, Messala. (c) Free from this beautiful world, you are in, Messala. (d) Free from the bondage, you are in, Messala. This paper consists of 6 pages (iv) How does Act 3, Scene 1, contribute to the overall theme of the play? (a) It explores the consequences of political manipulation. (b) It highlights the power of friendship. (c) It emphasizes the importance of loyalty. (d) It showcases the beauty of Rome. (v) Select the option that shows the correct relationship between statements I and II. Statement I: They will kiss dead Caesar s wounds with reverence. Statement II: The people of Rome have just heard Antony read out Caesar s will to them. (a) Statement I is true, and Statement II is false. (b)Statement II is the cause of Statement I. (c) Statement I and Statement II are independent of each other. (d)Statement II is true, and Statement I is false. (vi) Which of the following is NOT an example of irony? (a) Cassius calls Caesar a God while describing how weak he was. (b) Antony refers to Brutus as an honourable man while disproving his claims. (c) One of the plebeians suggested crowning Brutus king. (d) Antony compares the conspirators killing of Caesar to apes and hounds. (vii) Which of the following options contains the same literary device as the given verse from the poem? As silent as the pictures on the wall (a) Because I could not stop for death. He kindly stopped for me. (b) Where the mind is without fear, and the head is held high. (c) Soon, the sun s warmth makes them shed crystal shells, shattering and avalanching on the snow crust. (d) Some are like fields of sunlit corn. (viii) What does the phrase 'the occasion is divine' suggest about the lady's perspective? (a) She is deeply religious. (b) She sees this as an opportunity for personal gain. (c) She believes in fate and destiny. (d) She is genuinely concerned for the Count's safety. (ix) What emotion does our memory, suddenly sharpened reflect in the poem, When great trees fall ? (a) Joy (b) Regret (c) Fear (d) Anger 2 (x) Which are the geographical locations mentioned in the poem The Power of Music ? (i) Delhi. (ii) Kolkata (iii)Burma (iv)Bangalore (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv) (xi) The poem, A Considerable Speck can be seen as a perfect illustration of _______. (a) what Albert Schweitzer called a contempt for life (b) what Albert Schwarzman called a reverence for death (c) what Albert Schweitzer called a reverence for life (d) what Albert Schwarzenegger called a contempt for death (xii)Which of the following words BEST describes the world in which Mead lived? (a) Idyllic (b) Utopian (c) Dystopian (d) Cheerful (xiii) Martin, in the story The Elevator , is afraid of being trapped in the elevator. What is this fear called? (a) Hydrophobia (b) Arachnophobia (c) Claustrophobia (d) Aquaphobia (xiv) Adjoa s grandmother is a representative of(a) Authority and patriarchal outlook (b) Determination and hard work (c) Unconventional approach towards Adjoa (d) Loving and sensitive mother (xv) Sulphide is a process for removing the ________ entirely. (a) brows (b) nose (c) eyes (d) ears (xvi) What did the annexation of Alsace by Prussia signify for the protagonist and his community? (a) A new era of prosperity (b) A loss of cultural identity (c) A chance for revenge (d) An opportunity for advancement 3 SECTION B (Answer one or more questions from this section) DRAMA (Julius Caesar by William Shakespeare) Question 2 Read the following extract from Julius Caesar [Act V Scene III] and answer the questions that follow: Messala: Is not that he? Titinius: No, this was he, Messala, But Cassius is no more. O setting Sun, As in thy red rays thou dost sink to night, So, in his red blood Cassius day is set, The sun of Rome is set! Our day is gone; Clouds, dews, and dangers come; our deeds are done! Mistrust of my success hath done this deed. (i) Where does this scene take place? What is the nature of the relationship that Titinius and Cassius shared? (ii) Give two words that would best describe Titinius mood in the given extract. Justify your choice of words. (iii) Earlier in Act V, Cassius shares some facts about himself with Messala what are these facts? (iv) How did Cassius die? What were his dying words? (v) What does the phrase, this deed in the last line of the extract refer to? Explain in your own words what Titinius means by, Mistrust of my success hath done this deed . [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] Question 3 Read the extract from Julius Caesar [Act IV Scene III] and answer the questions that follow: Brutus: Speak no more of her. Give me a bowl of wine. In this I bury all unkindness, Cassius. Cassius: My heart is thirsty for that noble pledge. Fill, Lucius, till the wine o erswell the cup, I cannot drink too much of Brutus love. (i) Who is referred to as her in the first line of the extract? What had she done? Why did she take that step? (ii) How was Brutus related to the above lady? Why did he wish not to discuss the matter related to her? What does this tell us about his nature? (iii) Who comes to meet Brutus and Cassius immediately after the quoted lines? What news do they bring? (iv) Explain the term Triumvirate in this context. Name the members of the Second Triumvirate. (v) Brutus and Cassius had different ideas about how best to defeat the enemy. What were their strategies? Whose strategy was adopted? 4 [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] SECTION C (Answer one or more questions from this section) PROSE - SHORT STORIES (Treasure Chest - A Collection of ICSE Short stories and Poems) Question 4 Read the extract given below from The Last Lesson by Alphonse Daudet and answer the questions that follow: I think, too, that I had never listened so carefully, and that he had never explained everything with so much patience. (i) Who are I and he in the above extract? What kind of a teacher was he ? (ii) Why was the lesson called The Last Lesson ? (iii) What did I notice that was unusual about the school that day? (iv) What is the mood in the classroom among the adults and the children in the story The Last Lesson ? Give an alternative title to the story. (v) What does this statement reveal about I ? What kind of a pupil was the young boy earlier? What was the most important lesson he had learnt? [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] Question 5 Read the following extract The Pedestrian by Ray Bradbury, and answer the questions that follow: he [Mead] was alone in this world of A.D. 2053, or as good as alone, and with a final decision made, a path selected, he would stride off sending patterns of frosty air before him like the smoke of a cigar. (i) What was the thing that Leonard Mead most dearly loved to do ? (ii) Why did Mead switch to wearing sneakers when he went for a walk? (iii) What are Mead s neighbours and fellow citizens doing when Mead is out walking? What can you conclude about Mead from this? (iv) What reasons does Mead give for being out alone on the street at night? Why is this viewed with suspicion? (v)Where is Mead taken at the end of the story? Why is he taken to this place? If you had to describe this story in a single word, what word would you use? Give a reason for your choice of word. 5 [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] SECTION D (Answer one or more questions from this section) POETRY (Treasure Chest - A Collection of ICSE Short stories and Poems) Question 6 Read the following extract from Robert Frost s poem A Considerable Speck and answer the questions that follow: When something strange about made me think, This was no dust speck by my breathing blown, But unmistakably a living mite With inclinations it could call its own. (i) What was strange about the speck that attracted the speaker s attention? What was it in reality? Describe the speaker's attitude towards the speck. (ii)What made the speaker realise that the mite had a mind of its own as well as intelligence? Give three reasons to justify your answer. (iii) Analyse the speaker's decision to let the mite live. What does this reveal about his character? (iv) How would you evaluate the significance of the poem s ending? Why is the discovery of a display of mind' so important to the speaker? (v) What is the central theme of the poem? How does the speaker's action illustrate the theme of the poem? If you have to give the poem a different title, what will it be? Give a reason for your answer. [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] Question 7 Read the extract from the poem The Power of Music and answer the questions that follow. He downs his horns and charges straight, with bellow answ ring bellow. The strains of song are tossed and whirled by blast of brutal violence, And Bhisma Lochan grants the world the golden gift of silence. (i) In which season would one hear Bhisma Lochan Sharma singing? Where would one hear his voice? (ii) Give one reason to conclude that Bhisma was passionate about singing. How did people react when they heard his song? (iii) How did animals react when they heard Bhisma Lochan Sharma? (iv) After reading the poem, give any three characteristic features that you can associate with Bhisma Lochan Sharma. (v) How did the world get the golden gift of silence? Mention two ways in which music helps a person. 6 [3] [3] [3] [3] [4] Std. : X Date : 02/12/2024 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION - I (2024-2025) SUBJECT- HINDI(II LANGUAGE) Max. Marks : 80 Duration : 3 hrs Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. ______________________________________________________________________________ Section A is compulsory-All questions in Section A must be answered. Attempt any four questions from Section B, answering at least one question each from the two books you have studied and any two questions from the same books you have studied. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. Question 1 SECTION - A (40 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this Section) Write a short composition in Hindi of approximately 250 words on any one the following topics : [15] :(i) ? (ii) ' - ' ? (iii) ' ' (iv) : / This Paper consists of 8 printed pages. Turn over (v) , , Question 2 Write a letter in Hindi in approximately 120 words on any one of the topics given below: 120 :- (i) - (ii) Question 3 Read the passage given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow, using your own words as far as possible: I : , , - , , , [7] " ?" , " ! , , , , " ," , ?" , " ! " , " ! , , " , " , ?" , ' , ? , , - " , " , ? , " ! - " , " ! , - " , , 3 Turn over , , , - , , - , (i) ? ? [2] (ii) ? [2] (iii) ? [2] (iv) ? ? [2] (v) ? [2] Question 4 Answer the following according to the instructions given: : (i) ' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) (ii) ' : [1] (a) , (b) , (c) , (d) , (iii) ' ' : (a) (b) (c) [1] (d) (iv) ' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) (v)' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) (vi) ' ' : [1] (a) (b) (c) (d) (vii) : [1] , ( ?) (a) (b) (c) (d) (viii) : [1] ( ) (a) (b) (c) 5 Turn over (d) SECTION- B (40 Marks) Questions from only two textbooks are to be answered. Attempt four Questions from this section. You must answer at least one question from each of the two books you have studied and any two other questions from the same books that you have chosen. : SAHITYA SAGAR : SHORT STORIES Question 5 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " " [ ] (i) - ? (ii) ? ? [2] [2] (iii) , ? ? ? [3] [3] (iv) - Question 6 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- , , " (i) [ ] (ii) ? [2] [2] (iii) ? (iv) Question 7 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " [3] [3] " [ ] (i) ? [2] (ii) ? [2] ? ? (iv) [3] (iii) ? [3] Question 8 EKANKI SANCHAY Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " , , " (i) ? [ - ] [2] (ii) ? (iii) ? [2] [3] (iv) ? [3] Question 9 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " ! , ? - - , , , ?" [ - ] (i) , ? [2] (ii) ? [2] (iii) ? 7 Turn over [3] (iv) [3] Question 10 Read the extract given below and answer in Hindi the questions that follow: :- " ?" [ - ] (i) ? (ii) - - ? [2] [2] (iii) ? ? [3] [3] (iv) ? PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-I (2024-25) SUBJECT MARATHI (II LANGUAGE) Std.: X Date: 02/12/2024 Max. Marks: 80 Duration: 3 h Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. This paper is divided into two Sections. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. Section A (40 marks) (Attempt all questions from this section.) Question 1 Write a short composition in Marathi of approximately 200-250 words on any one of the following topics: - . [15] i) - . , . . ii) , , , , , , , , ! . iii) , , . , ? . iv) . This paper consists of 7 printed pages. v) . Question 2 Write a letter in Marathi of approximately 120 words on any one of the topics given below: . [7] - . . - . . . . Question 3 Read the passage given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow. . . . Page 2 . . . . . - . . - . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . i) ? ? [2] ii) ? [2] iii) ? [2] iv) ? ? [2] v) . . [2] Page 3 Question 4 Choose the correct answer to the question from the given options. . i) , ? [1] a. , b. , c. , d. , ii) , - [1] a. , b. , c. , d. , iii) , - [1] a. , b. , c. , d. . iv) , ? [1] a. , b. , c. , d. , v) , . . a. b. c. d. Page 4 [1] vi) -------------- ! ( ?) [1] a. ! b. ! c. ! d. ! vii) . ? [1] a. b. c. d. viii) . ? [1] a. b. c. d. Section B (40 Marks) Attempt any four questions from this section. You must answer at least one question from each of the two books you have studied and any two other questions. Question 5 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . ( ) . . . i) ? ? [2] ii) ? [2] iii) ? ? [3] iv) ? [3] Page 5 Question 6 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . ( ) . , , , , , . , ... i) ? [2] ii) ? [2] iii) ? [3] iv) . [3] Question 7 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow: . ( ) ? ? . . ! ! i) . [2] ii) ? ? [2] iii) ? [3] iv) ? [3] Question 8 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow. . ( ) i) ? [2] ii) . [3] Page 6 iii) ? [2] iv) ? [3] Question 9 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow. . ( ) , ? , i) ? [2] ii) , , ! . iii) ? iv) ? [2] [3] [3] Question 10 Read the extract given below and answer in Marathi the questions that follow. . ( ) : i) ? [2] ii) . [2] iii) ? [3] iv) . [3] Page 7 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION - I (2024-2025) SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 80 Duration: 3hrs Std: X Date: 09/12/2024 SECTION A (Attempt all questions from this section) Question 1 [15] Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the questions, write the correct answers only.) (i) If the probability of an event is p , then the probability of its complementary event will be: (a) p 1 (b) p (c) 1 p (d) 1 (ii) Siya bought 400 g of almonds at 1200 per kg. If the rate of the GST is 5%, then the amount paid by Siya is: (a) 504 (b) 480 (c) 1260 (d) 630 (iii) If = , then is equal to: (a) (b) (c) Both (a) and (b). (d) neither (a) and (b) -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------This Paper consists of 6 printed pages 1 of 6 (iv) Given: [ ] M= [ ]. The order of the matrix M is: (a) 2 2 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 1 1 (v) The inclination of the line x y + 2 = 0 is: (a) 00 (b) 300 (c) 600 (d) 900 (vi) Assertion (A): Dividends are payments made by companies to their shareholders. Reason (R): Dividends are fixed amounts determined by the face value of the shares. (a) A is true , R is false. (b) A is false, R is true. (c) Both A and R are true. (d) Both A and R are false (vii) If ABC EDF and ABC is not similar to DEF , then which of the following is not true ? (a) BC EF = AC FD (b) AB EF = AC DE (c) BC DE = AB EF (d) BC DE = AB FD (viii) Which of the following is/are an Arithmetic Progression? 1) 1, 4, 9, 16, . 2) , 2 , 3) 8,6,4,2, (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All 1 , 2 and 3 (ix) If x2 + kx + 6 = ( x 2) ( x 3) for all values of x , then the value of k is: (a) 5 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 5 (x) Mean of 100 items is 49. It was discovered that three items which should have been 60 ,70, 80 were wrongly read as 40, 20, 50 respectively. The correct mean is: (a) 48 (b) 49 (c) 50 (d) 60 (xi) In a cylinder , if the radius is halved and height is doubled then the volume will be : (a) Same (b) halved (c) doubled (d) four times ----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- ----------. 2 of 6 (xii) The points A ( 9, 0) , B (9, 6) ,C ( 9, 6) and D ( 9, 0) are the vertices of a : (a) Rectangle (b) Square (c) Rhombus (d) Trapezium (xiii) If 0 , then x ___ 2. (a) (b) (c) (d) (xiv) If the height of a tower and the distance of the point of observation from its foot both are increased by 10% , then the angle of elevation of its top : (a) get doubled (b) remains unchanged (c) gets tripled (d) becomes half (xv) ( x + 2 ) ( x + 3) are two factors of the polynomial x3 + 6x2 + 11x + 6. If this polynomial is completely factorized , the result is: (a) ( x 2) ( x + 3)( x + 1) (b) ( x + 2) ( x 3)( x 1) (c) ( x + 2) ( x + 3) ( x 1) (d)( x + 2) ( x + 3) ( x + 1) Question 2 (i) Ram deposits a certain sum of money every month in a recurring deposit account [4] for 2 years. If the bank pays interest at 10% p.a and Ram receives 66,250 as the maturity value of the account. Calculate : a) Interest b) Sum of the money pay every month. (ii) The line joining P( 4 ,5) and Q (3,2) intersects y-axis at R . PM and QN are [4] perpendicular from P and Q on the X axis. Find : a) the ratio PR: RQ b) the coordinates of R c) the area of quadrilateral PMNQ. (iii) Prove that: ( 1 + cot A cosec A) ( 1 + tan A + sec A) = 2. [4] Question 3 (i) The length of a rectangle exceeds the breadth by 5 m. If the length was decreased by 4 m and the breadth was doubled , then the area would be increased by 40 m2. Find the original length. (ii) If the 6th term of an A.P is equal to four times its first term and the sum of first six terms is 75 ,find the first term and the common difference. (iii) The mean marks obtained by 50 students in a test is 23 , where a and b are two missing data. Find a and b. Marks No of students 0 - 10 4 10 - 20 a 20 - 30 20 30 - 40 b [4] [4] [5] 40 50 4 3 of 6 SECTION B (Attempt any four questions from this Section) Question 4 (i) Use properties of proportion and solve for x : If (ii) Evaluate : [ [3] = ] [ ] [3] (iii) Draw an ogive for the following data taking 2cm = 50 and 2cm = 20 workers along x-axis and y- axis respectively . Wages( ) 250 - 300 300-350 350- 400 400-450 450-500 No of 8 15 20 30 25 workers Estimate : a) The median wages b) the inter- quartile range of wages. 500-550 15 [4] 550-600 7 Question 5 (i) The price of an article is 4410 inclusive of GST , at the rate of 5% on its listed price. [3] A customer asks the dealer for a discount on the listed price so that after charging GST, the selling price will be same as listed price. a) What is the list price ? b) What is the amount of discount which the dealer must allow for the deal ? (ii) Prove that : tan 2 A + cot2 A + 2 = sec2 A cosec2 A. [3] (iii) A map is drawn to a scale of 1 : 20,000. [4] a) On the map, the perimeter of a reservoir is represented by a length of 185 cm. Calculate the actual perimeter of the reservoir in km. b) The actual area of plantation is 3.2 km2. Calculate the area on the map which represents the plantation , give your answer in cm2. Question 6 (i) How many terms of the GP : 3,6,12 , will give a sum of 3069? [3] A (ii) In the given diagram , ABC is a triangle and BCFD is a parallelogram. AD: DB = 4: 5 and EF = 15 cm. Find: a) AE : EC b) DE c) BC [3] D B E F C (iii) A conical tent is to accommodate 77 persons. Each person must have 16 m3 of air to breathe. The radius of the tent is 7 m , find the height of the tent and also its curved surface area [4] 4 of 6 Question 7 (i) In the given diagram, AC is perpendicular to x-axis . B ( 0, 5) and C ( 4, 0). a) Find the equation of AC .b) If slope of AB is 3 , find the equation of AB . c) Find the coordinates of A and the midpoint of AB A [5] B O C (ii) From the top of a cliff , the angle of depression of the top and bottom of a tower are observed to be 450 and 600 respectively. If the height of the tower is 20 m. Find : a) the height of the cliff b) the distance between the cliff and the tower. [5] Question 8 (i) A man wants to buy 62 shares available at 132 (par value of 100). [3] a) How much should he invest? b) If the dividend is 7.5% , what will be his annual income? c) If he wants to increase his annual income by 150 , how many extra shares should he buy ? (ii) Construct a PMN, given that MN = 5cm , PN = 7 cm and PMN = 900. [3] Construct an incircle of the triangle. (iii) An exhibition tent is in the form of a cylinder surmounted by a cone. The height of the tent above the ground is 85 m and height of the cylindrical part is 50 m. If the diameter of the base is 168 m , find the quantity of canvas required to make the tent allowing 20% extra for folding and stitching. Give your answer to the nearest m2. [4] Question 9 (i) Solve the following inequation and write the solution set and represent it on the number line : [3] 2 , x W. (ii) Find the value of k for which the following equation has equal roots. x2 + 4kx + ( k2 k + 2) = 0. (iii) Construct ABC , in which AB = 5.5 cm , BC = 3.2 cm and CA = 4.8 cm. Draw the locus of points at a distance of 2.5 cm from B. Draw the locus of points equidistant from the sides BC and CA. Mark the point of intersection of the loci with the letter P and measure PC [3] [4] 5 of 6 Question 10 (i) Find the value of k , if 4x3 2x2 + kx + 5 leaves remainder by (2x + 1). 10 when divided [3] (ii) A bag contains 25 cards , numbered through 1 to 25. A card is drawn at random. What is the probability that the number on the card drawn is : a) multiple of 5 b) a perfect square c) a prime number ? [3] (iii) Plot the points A( 4, 6) and B ( 1, 2) on the graph paper. A is the image of A when reflected in x axis. B is the image of B when reflected in the line AA . Give a geometrical name for the figure ABA B [4] -----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------6 of 6 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION - I (2024-25) SUBJECT PHYSICS Std.: X Date: 05/12/2024 Max. Marks: 80 Duration: 2 h Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. ______________________________________________________________________________ Attempt all questions from Section A and any three questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions from this Section.) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) (i) [15] Assertion (A): Ultraviolet radiations are scattered more as compared to microwave radiations. Reason (R): The wavelength of ultraviolet radiation is more than the wavelength of microwave radiation. (a) Both A and R are true. (b) A is true but R is false. (c) A is false but R is true. (d) Both A and R are false. (ii) A radioactive element is placed in an evacuated chamber. Then the rate of radioactive decay will: (a) decrease (b) increase (c) remain unchanged (d) depend on the surrounding temperature This paper consists of 11 printed pages. Turn over. (iii) The graph given below shows heat energy supplied against change in temperature when no energy is lost to the surrounding. The slope of this graph will give: (a) Specific heat capacity (b) Latent heat of fusion (c) Latent heat of vaporization (d) Heat capacity (iv) Which EM wave do electric arcs give out? (a) IR rays (b) Gamma rays (c) X - rays (d) UV rays (v) The potential difference between terminals of a cell in a closed electric circuit is: (a) terminal voltage (b) electromotive force (c) voltage drop (d) none of these due to friction, the effort (vi) In a single movable pulley due to friction, the effort needed is___. a) less than L/2 b) 2L c) more than L/2 d) L (vii) The circuit below shows five lamps with identical resistance. Initially switch Q is closed. Switch Q is now opened. Compared with the brightness from before (when Switch Q was closed), how has the brightness of the four lamps changed? Page 2 of 11 Lamp A Lamp B Lamp C Lamp D Lamp E (a) Dimmer Dimmer Brighter Dimmer Dimmer (b) Brighter Brighter Dimmer Brighter Brighter (c) Brighter Brighter Same Brighter Brighter (d) Brighter Brighter Brighter Brighter Brighter (viii) The cable for an electric kettle (with a metal casing) contains a wire connected to the plug's earth pin. Which danger does this guard against? (a) the cable to the kettle becoming too hot (b) the casing of the kettle becoming live (c) the casing of the kettle becoming wet on the outside (d) the casing of the kettle overheating (ix) Four nuclides are represented below. 6 A3 7X3 6P4 7S5 Which pair of nuclides are isotopes of the same element? (a) A and X (b) A and P (c) P and S (d) X and P Page 3 of 11 (x) Radioactive emissions from a source pass into an electric field as shown. What is emitted by this source? (a) neutrons and -rays only (b) -particles and -particles only (c) -particles and -rays only (d) -particles and -rays only (xi) A manufacturer recommends that the longer the extension cord you use with an electric drill, the bigger the cross-sectional area of the cord should be. What is a reason for this recommendation? (a) Resistance is inversely proportional to both the length and the cross-sectional area. (b) Resistance is inversely proportional to the length and directly proportional to the cross-sectional area. (c) Resistance is proportional to both the length and the cross-sectional area. (d) Resistance is proportional to the length and inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area. is inversely proportional to the length and directly proportional (xii) Assuming all lenses shown below are of the same material, state which lens has the maximum power. (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S (xiii) An object 0 is placed at 4 cm from a convex lens L of focal length 20 cm. The power of the lens is: Page 4 of 11 (a) - 0.25 D (b) + 25 D (c) + 5 D (d) - 0.05 D (xiv) Which of the following statements is wrong? (a) Speed of light ray PQ is equal to the speed of light ray ST. (b) Speed of light ray QR is equal to the speed of light ray RS. (c) Speed of light ray PQ is greater than the speed of light ray RS. (d) Speed of light ray QR is greater than the speed of light ray ST. (xv) The diagrams below show a force F = 40 N acting in different directions on a rod AB pivoted at A. Identify the correct statement. (a) P and S have opposite moments. (b) The magnitude of the moment of force is maximum in R. (c) The magnitude of the moment of force is maximum in P and Q. (d) The moment of force in R is negative. Question 2 (i) Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket: (a) The larger the value of M.A., the lesser the ______. (effort, load, V.R.) Page 5 of 11 [6] (b) The value of the critical angle for _____ would be larger than that of green for the same medium. (orange, violet, blue) (c) It is _____ necessary that the centre of gravity always be within the material of the body. (always, sometimes, not) (d) A lens produces an image with m = + 2. This image is _____ and ______. (real and enlarged, virtual and enlarged, virtual and diminished) (e) The slope of an I-V graph will give the ________. (conductance, resistivity, resistance) (ii) Water at 0 C is heated till it turns into steam at 100 C. Draw a heating curve for the same. [2] (iii) (a) Name the material used in making a fuse wire. [2] (b) State the characteristics of the material stated in (a) which make it suitable for use in a fuse. Question 3 (i) Why do we use red colour as a danger signal on the top of a skyscraper? [2] (ii) Define specific heat capacity and state its SI unit. [2] (iii) A walker can see a cliff some distance away and wants to estimate how far it is. He [2] makes a loud noise and times how long it takes for the echo to reach him. It takes 1.8 s. If the speed of sound in air is 345 m/s, how far is the cliff? (iv) A truck weighing 5 x 103 kgf and a cart weighing 500 kgf are moving at the same speed. [2] Compare their kinetic energies. (v) A pair of scissors and a pair of pliers, both, belong to the same class of levers. Name the [2] class of lever. Which of them has a mechanical advantage of less than 1? (vi) Give a reason why water is used in fomentation bags. [2] (vii) In 2011 an earthquake caused severe damage to a nuclear power station in Japan. The [3] damage led to the release of large amounts of radioactive iodine-131 ( ) into the atmosphere. (a) Calculate the number of neutrons in I-131. (b) An atom of iodine-131 decays into an atom of xenon (Xe) by emitting a beta particle. Represent this change with a reaction. (c) Besides the loss of life, name one effect of exposure to radioactive rays. Page 6 of 11 SECTION B (Attempt any four questions from this Section.) Question 4 (i) A roller with a diameter of 0.2 m is raised over a pavement AB by applying forces F1 [3] and F2 as shown in the diagram. If the magnitude of both the forces is 20 N, then compare the moments produced by the two forces. (ii) A block and tackle system has a velocity ratio of 4. [3] (a) Draw a labelled diagram of the system clearly indicating the direction of the load and effort. (b) Calculate the potential energy of a load of 100 kgf lifted by this pulley to a height of 5 m. (g = 10 m/s2) (iii) Arshad Nadeem won the gold medal in men s javelin throw in the Paris Olympics 2024. One of the advantages Nadeem has is long arms. Study the picture below to answer the questions: (a) Which class of lever is used in the biomechanics of throwing a javelin? (b) How do Arshad Nadeem s long arms prove to be advantageous compared to Neeraj Chopra s? Page 7 of 11 [4] (c) Match the columns by choosing the body part and corresponding mechanical lever of the same class. Question 5 (i) Two identical marbles A and B are rolled down along Path 1 and Path 2 respectively. [3] Path 1 is frictionless and Path 2 is rough. (a) Which marble will surely reach the next peak? (b) Along which path/s the mechanical energy will be conserved? (c) Along which path/s is the law of conservation of energy obeyed? (ii) The peephole in a house door uses a certain lens. Identify the lens and draw an [3] appropriate ray diagram for the same. (iii) You are doing an experiment on the refraction of light in your Physics laboratory. [4] ABCD is a rectangular block. A ray of light is incident obliquely on the surface AB. (a) Draw the path of the ray of light through the glass block and show how it emerges from the block. (b) Which two pairs of angles remain the same during the experiment? Question 6 (i) When sunlight passes through water droplets in the atmosphere it gets dispersed into its constituent colours forming a rainbow. A similar phenomenon is observed when white light passes through a prism. (a) Which colour will show the maximum angle of deviation and which colour will show Page 8 of 11 [3] the minimum angle of deviation? (b) Instead of sunlight, a green-coloured ray is passed through a glass prism. What will be the colour of the emergent ray? (ii) An object is placed at a distance 24 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length 8 cm. [3] (a) Calculate the distance of the image from the lens. (b) What is the nature of the image so formed? (iii) In the given diagram, a vibrating tuning fork is kept near the mouth of a burette filled [4] with water. The length of the air column is adjusted by opening the tap of the burette. At a length of 5 cm of the air column, a loud sound is heard. (a) Name the phenomenon illustrated by the above experiment. (b) Why is a loud sound heard at this particular length? (c) Name the type of vibration if the present tuning fork is replaced with a tuning fork of a higher frequency. Should the length of the air column be increased or decreased to produce a loud sound? Question 7 (i) Purvi's friend Tim wants to connect a fuse to his oven. He wants to control the oven from two different locations. Shown below is his circuit diagram. (a) Which of the two, A or B should be a live wire? (b) In the event of an overload, will the fuse serve its purpose? Page 9 of 11 [3] (c) What is the meaning of the statement oven is rated 600W, 220 V ? (ii) Calculate the total amount of heat energy required to melt 200 g of ice at 0 C to water at [3] 100 C. (Specific latent heat of ice = 3,36,000 J/kg, specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/kg C) (iii) Examine the graph depicting the transmitted (T) and reflected (R) waves from submarines [4] A and B, both equipped with a device emitting ultrasonic sounds. Study the graph and answer the following. (Speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s) (a) Name the device used here. (b) Why is ultrasonic sound used in this device? (c) Which submarine is closer to the ship? Calculate the distance of the closest submarine. Question 8 (i) Find the equivalent resistance between points A and B. [3] (ii) (a) When does the nucleus of an atom tend to become radioactive? [3] (b) How is the radioactivity of a radio isotope affected if it undergoes a chemical change? Give a reason for your answer. (iii) The diagram below shows three resistors connected across a cell of e.m.f. 1.8 V and internal resistance r. Calculate: (a) Current through the 3 resistor. (b) The internal resistance r. Page 10 of 11 [4] Question 9 (i) What mass of ice at 0 C added to 2.1 kg water, will cool it down from 75 C to 25 C? [3] Given specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1 C-1, specific latent heat of ice = 336 Jg-1. (ii) (a) What is the principle of method of mixtures? [3] (b) What is the other name given to it? (c) Name the law on which the principle is based. (iii) The voltage - current readings of a certain material are shown in the table given below: Study the table. (a) State whether the conductor used is ohmic or non-ohmic. (b) Justify your answer. (c) State Ohm s law. Page 11 of 11 [4] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2024-2025) SUBJECT CHEMISTRY Std.: X Max. Marks: 80 Date: 06/12/2024 Duration: 2 h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. __________________________________________________________________________ Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ___________________________________________________________________________ SECTION A (40 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this section.) Question 1 Choose the correct answer to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the questions, write the correct answer only.) (i) (ii) [15] In which of the following tubes effervescence will occur? (a) Only P (b) Only Q (c) Both P and Q (d) Both R and S Substance P is a white coloured, crystalline salt which on heating decomposes to give yellow residue. A solution of P is added to NaOH solution until in excess. A white ppt. Q is obtained which is soluble in excess NaOH. A solution of P is added to NH4OH solution until in excess. A white ppt. Q is obtained which is insoluble in excess NH4OH. When a solution of P is reacted with dil. HCl then it gives a white ppt. R soluble in hot water. Identify P , Q , R : (a) P : CuSO4, Q : Cu (OH)2, R : CuSO4 (b) P : FeSO4, Q : Fe (OH)2, R : CuCl2 This Paper consist of 12 printed pages. Turn over (iii) (c) P : Pb(NO3)2, Q : Pb(OH)2, R : PbCl2 (d) P : ZnSO4, R : ZnSO4 Q : Zn (OH)2, A few drops of universal indicator are added to four colourless solutions, A, B, C and D having pH 2, 10, 9 and 7 respectively. Which of the following test tube is labeled with incorrect colour? (iv) (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D The correct structural formula of butanoic acid is: (a) (b) (c) (d) _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 2 of 12 (v) In the second period of periodic table, following elements are present from left to right. Li, Be, B, C, N, O, F, Ne Select the correct statements from the given options. (vi) (vii) (1) O and N exist as diatomic gases. (2) C is the lightest element in the period. (3) Li and F react to form a covalent compound LiF. (4) B is a trivalent metalloid while C is a tetravalent non-metal. (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Which of the following remains unchanged on descending a group in the periodic table? (a) Valence electrons (b) Density (c) Atomic size (d) Metallic character The atomic mass of sulphur (S), oxygen (O) and carbon (C) are approximately 32, 16 and 12 respectively. Which of the following statements regarding the number of mole in 88 g of CO2 and 128 g of SO2 is correct? X 88g of CO2 contains equal number of moles in 128 g of SO2. Y 88g of CO2 contains double the number of moles in 128g of SO2. (viii) (a) Only X (b) Only Y (c) Both X and Y (d) Neither X nor Y Ethene is produced when: (a) Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in the presence of a few drops of conc.H2SO4. (b) Ethanol is oxidized with acidified potassium dichromate. (c) Ethanol is treated with excess conc. H2SO4 at 1700C. (d) Ethanol reacts with sodium metal. _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 3 of 12 (ix) Carboxylic acid was added to a solid X kept in a test tube. A colourless and odourless gas was evolved. The gas was passed through lime water which turned milky. It was concluded that: (x) (a) Solid X is sodium hydroxide and the gas evolved is H2 (b) Solid X is sodium bicarbonate and the gas evolved is CO2 (c) Solid X is sodium acetate and the gas evolved is CO2 (d) Solid X is sodium chloride and the gas evolved is H2 Garima wrote IUPAC names and common names of a few compounds asked by her science teacher. The teacher told her that one of the compounds was not correctly named. Identify the one with the wrong name. Structure (xi) IUPAC name Common name (a) Ethanal Acetaldehyde (b) Ethyne Acetylene (c) Ethanoic acid Formic acid (d) Methanol Methyl alcohol Read the given statements and select the correct option. Statement 1: Homologous series is a series of compounds having similar properties. Statement 2: The successive members of the homologous series differ by - CH group. (a) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1. (b) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1. (xii) (c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (d) Both statements 1 and 2 are false. Which of the following elements will form an acidic oxide? (a) An element with atomic number 10 (b) An element with atomic number 12 (c) An element with atomic number 15 (d) An element with atomic number 19 _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 4 of 12 (xiii) Which of the following would weigh the least? (Atomic masses C = 12, O = 16, Na = 23) (xiv) (a) 2 gram atoms of oxygen (b) one mole of sodium (c) 22.4 litres of carbon dioxide at STP (d) 6.023 x 1022 atoms of carbon Study the table related to four hydrocarbons U, V, W, X. Identify the incorrect statements about these four hydrocarbons. (xv) Organic compound Molecular formula U C4 H10 V C6H14 W C3H6 X C2H2 (a) W and X are unsaturated hydrocarbons and they can undergo addition reactions. (b) U and V decolorize Bromine water and Bayer s reagent. (c) The common name of X is acetylene. (d) The isomers of U are n- butane and isobutane. Equation for the reaction when compound A is bubbled through bromine dissolved in carbon tetrachloride is as follows: Br2 /CCl 4 A CH2Br- CH2Br Identify the correct structure of A and observation of this reaction. Structure Observation (a) Colour of bromine discharged. (b) Colour of bromine does not discharge. (c) Bromine water turns pink. (d) Bromine water turns yellow. _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 5 of 12 Question 2 (i) (ii) Identify the following: (a) Anode used in the electro refining of copper. (b) A strong but non-volatile mineral acid. (c) The process by which bauxite ore is purified. (d) The acid that is present in vinegar. (e) A catalyst used in Haber's process. Match the following Column I with Column II: Column I (iii) [5] Column II (a) Acidic salt (1) Basic copper chloride (b) Non-polar compound (2) Liquid ammonia (c) Ostwald's process (3) Nitric acid (d) Used as refrigerant (4) Sodium hydrogen sulphite (e) Basic salt (5) Carbon tetrachloride Complete the following by choosing the correct answers from the bracket. (a) [5] [5] The tendency of an atom in a molecule to attract the shared pair of electrons towards itself is called ________ (electronegativity / electron affinity). (b) Electrolysis of aqueous copper sulphate will form ______ (copper metal / copper (II) ions) at cathode. (c) Quick lime is not used to dry HCl gas because it is _______ (alkaline/acidic) in nature. (d) The fusible compound formed by the combination of flux and gangue is called ________ (mineral/slag). (e) The degree of ionisation of an acid in an aqueous solution is called its ________ (strength/concentration) (iv) A compound X having vinegar like smell when treated with ethanol in the presence of the acid, Z, gives a compound Y which has a fruity smell. [5] The reaction is: _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 6 of 12 (v) (a) Identify X, Y and Z. (b) Name the above reaction. (c) Write a balanced chemical equation of X with caustic soda. The following is a list of methods for the preparation of salts: A Direct combination of two elements. B Reaction of a dilute acid with a metal. [5] C Reaction of a dilute acid with an insoluble base. D Titration of a dilute acid with a solution of soluble base. E Reaction of two solutions of salts to form a precipitate. Choose from the list A to E, the best method of preparing the following salts by giving a suitable balanced chemical equation in each case: (a) Copper (II) Sulphate (b) Ferric chloride (c) Sodium sulphate (d) Lead sulphate (e) Zinc sulphate SECTION B (40 Marks) (Attempt any four questions from this section.) Question 3 (i) (ii) (iii) State whether the following statements are True or False. Justify your answer. (a) Electrolysis of molten lead bromide is considered to be a redox reaction. (b) Copper is a good conductor of electricity but it is a non-electrolyte. Define: [2] [2] (a) Covalent bond (b) Co-ordinate bond (a) A compound has the following percentage composition by mass, carbon 14.4%, hydrogen 1.2% and chlorine 84.5%. Determine the empirical formula of this compound. (H=1, C=12 and Cl=35.5) (b) If the empirical formula of a compound is CHO and its vapour density is 29, find the molecular formula of the compound. [3] _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 7 of 12 (iv) Choose the role played by alloys given as (1) to (3) with (a) to (c). (a) (1) Solder (2) Duralumin (3) Stainless steel [3] It is stronger than aluminium, has light weight and is used in making aircraft frames. (b) It is lustrous, hard, corrosion resistant and used in surgical instruments. (c) It lowers the melting point of the alloy and is used for soldering purpose. Question 4 (i) For each of the substances given below, what is the role played in the preparation of NH3 (ammonia): (ii) (a) CaO (b) Mo Identify the substance X and Y from the following observations. (a) [2] [2] Salt X is white in colour. On strong heating, it produces buff yellow residue and liberates reddish brown gas. Solution of salt X produces chalky white insoluble precipitate with excess of ammonium hydroxide. (b) Solid Y is black in colour. On reacting with conc. HCl, it liberates a pungent greenish yellowish gas which turns moist starch iodide paper blue black. (iii) During a classroom demonstration, students observe the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas by reacting sodium chloride with concentrated sulphuric acid. The gas is collected in a dry gas jar. They also witness an experiment where hydrogen chloride is bubbled through water with special arrangement; and the resulting solution is tested with indicators. (a) [3] Why is concentrated sulphuric acid used to dry hydrogen chloride gas instead of other drying agents? (b) Draw a diagram to show the arrangement used for the absorption of HCl in water. (c) (iv) Why is such an arrangement necessary? Give two reasons. The table below shows a section of the periodic table. Answer the questions following the table. [3] _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 8 of 12 Group IA IIA IIIA IVA VA VIA VIIA O 1 2 13 14 15 16 17 18 Period 2 Li Be R Ne Period 3 A Mg E Period 4 S J I Number (a) Most electronegative element. (b) Most reactive element of Group-1. (c) Electronic configuration of Element H. Si H M U Br As T Question 5 (i) Give reasons for the following statements: (a) [2] Metals like iron, aluminium, cobalt and nickel become passive (inert) with concentrated nitric acid. (b) A piece of wood becomes black when concentrated sulphuric acid is poured on it. (ii) (iii) (iv) Find the odd one out in each case and explain your choice. (a) C3H8 , C5H10, C2H6, CH4 (b) Formic acid, Nitric acid, Acetic acid, Propanoic acid. [2] Give a chemical equation for the preparation of the following organic compounds: [3] (a) The laboratory preparation of ethane from sodium propanoate. (b) The reaction of one mole of ethene with one mole of bromine. (c) The preparation of ethyne from 1, 2 dibromoethane. Glucose or blood sugar has the molecular formula C 6H12O6. Glucose is overall the most abundant monosaccharide, a subcategory of carbohydrates. Glucose is mainly made by plants and most algae during photosynthesis from water and carbon dioxide, using energy from sunlight. Determine % composition of each element in the glucose molecule. (Atomic weight: O = 16, C =12, H =1) [3] Question 6 (i) Propane burns in air according to the following equation. [2] C3H8 + 5O2 3CO2 + 4H2O _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 9 of 12 What volume of propane is consumed on using 1000 cm 3 of air, considering only 40% of air contains oxygen? (ii) Distinguish between the following pairs of compounds using the reagent given in the bracket. [2] (a) Manganese dioxide and copper [II] oxide [using conc. HCl] (b) Ferrous sulphate solution and ferric sulphate solution [using sodium hydroxide solution] (iii) Study the given figure and answer the given questions: (a) Name the experiment illustrated above. (b) Identify the gas Y and which property of gas Y does this experiment [3] demonstrate? (c) Name another gas which has the same property which can be demonstrated by this experiment. (iv) Define isomerism. Give the IUPAC name and common name of the chain isomer of C4H10 which has a branched chain. [3] Question 7 (i) (ii) State the observations at the anode during the electrolysis of: (a) Fused lead bromide using graphite electrodes. (b) Copper sulphate solution using copper electrodes. [2] Jiya was doing an experiment in which she had to dry up ammonia, but she observes that the concentrated sulphuric acid is not able to dry ammonia gas. (a) [2] Why is Jiya not able to dry ammonia gas using concentrated sulphuric acid? _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 10 of 12 (b) Give the balanced chemical equation for the conversion of ammonia solution to an amphoteric hydroxide (iii) A group of students conducted an experiment to understand electrolysis process. Three different electrolytic cells A, B and C are connected in separate circuits. They noted the following observations. Give reason for each of these observations. (iv) Electrolyte A Electrolyte B Electrolyte C Bulb glow brightly. Bulb glows dimly. Bulb doesn t glow. Write the IUPAC names of following organic compounds: [3] [3] (a) (b) (c) _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 11 of 12 Question 8 (i) (ii) (iii) Draw electron dot structure formed for the positive ion produced when ammonia gas is dissolved in water. State the type of bonds present in it. [2] Arrange the following as per instructions: [2] (a) Br, F, I, Cl (increasing order of atomic size) (b) F, C, N, O (increasing order of electronegativity) The following is an extract from Metals in the Service of Man, Alexander and Street/Pelican 1976. Alumina (aluminium oxide) has a very high melting point of over 2000 C so that it cannot readily be liquefied. However, conversion of alumina to aluminium and oxygen, by electrolysis, can occur, when it is dissolved in some other substance : (a) [3] Which solution is used to react with bauxite as a first step in obtaining pure aluminium oxide? (b) Aluminium oxide for the electrolytic extraction of aluminium is obtained by heating aluminium hydroxide. Write the equation for this reaction. (c) Write the equation for the reaction that occurs at the cathode during the extraction of aluminium by electrolysis. (iv) What will you observe when: (a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is added to nitric acid. (b) Ammonium hydroxide is added first in a small quantity and then in excess to a [3] solution of copper sulphate. (c) Excess of chlorine gas is reacted with ammonia gas. ----------------xxxxx----------------- _____________________________________________________________________________________ Page 12 of 12 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2024-2025) SUBJECT BIOLOGY Std.: X Max Marks: 80 Date: 07.12.2024 Duration: 2 hours Answer to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Section A is compulsory. Attempt any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in the bracket [ ]. SECTION A (Attempt all questions from this Section) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only) (i) [15] Kamalpreet is exploring genetics and wonders about the concept of criss-cross inheritance, which refers to: (a) The effect of environmental factors on genetic expression (b) Inheritance of traits from one parent (c) The exchange of genetic material between chromosomes (d) The inheritance of traits that appear in alternating generations (ii) Jamie is curious about the function of the following organ. (a) Equalizes pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere (b) Secretion of wax (c) Amplify the sound (d) Make eardrum vibrate. (iii) Darwin's theory of evolution primarily focuses on: (a) Genetic drifts (b) Natural selection (c) Law of dominance (d) Inheritance of acquired characters The Paper consists of 8 printed pages. 1 of 8 (iv) Help Fatima know the common name of the hormone somatotropin. (a) Growth hormone (b) Thyroid hormone (c) Insulin (d) Cortisol (v) The Bowman s capsule lie in (a) Renal Cortex (b) Renal Medulla (c) Renal Pelvis (d) Renal Artery (vi) Which of the following is NOT a radioactive element? (a) Uranium -235 (b) Iodine -131 (c) Cobalt -60 (d) Titanium -38 (vii) Assertion (A): Contraceptive pills are used to prevent pregnancy. Reason (R): They contain hormones that regulate ovulation and menstrual cycles. (a) is True and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) is True and R is the incorrect explanation of A. (c) is True and R is False. (d) oth A and R are False. A A A B (viii) When researching medical conditions, Mr. Iyer wants to know about meningitis. It is an inflammation of membranes around: (a) The brain (b) The eye (c) The liver (d) The lung (ix) Morgan is fascinated by plant behaviour and asks what the coiling of tendrils in a pea plant around a support shows: 2 of 8 (a) Phototropism (b) Gravitropism (c) Thigmotropism (d) Hydrotropism (x) The role of fibrinogen in the human body: (a) Oxygen transport (b) Blood clotting (c) Immune response (d) Nutrient transport (xi) While studying plant biology, Abdul wonders about the adaptations in leaves that do NOT facilitate photosynthesis, which include: (a) Thick cuticles (b) Numerous stomata (c) Large surface area (d) High number of chloroplast (xii) Jordan is curious to know about where plant transpiration occurs: (a) Stomata, Lenticels, Cuticle (b) Lenticels, Cuticle, Hydathodes (c) Cuticle, Hydathodes, Stomata (d) Hydathodes, Stomata, Lenticels (xiii) While learning about solutions, Riley wants to know what tonicity refers to, specifically in relation to solute concentration: (a) Hypertonic, hypotonic, isotonic (b) Acidic, basic, neutral (c) Saturated, unsaturated, supersaturated (d) Dilute, concentrated, standard (xiv) Identify the phase of meiosis where crossing over takes place. (a) Metaphase I (b) Prophase I (c) Anaphase II (d) Telophase II 3 of 8 (xv) Alex is studying cell biology and is interested to know the significance of the centrosomes. (a) Energy production (b) Cell division (c) Protein synthesis (d) Lipid metabolism Question 2 (i) Name the following. [5] (a) T he study of human populations, including their size, distribution, and trends. (b) The term for body structures that have lost their original function through evolution. (c) The process of giving birth in mammals. (d) The condition in which the lens turns opaque, reducing vision to the point of total blindness. (e) The oozing out of white blood cells through the walls of capillaries. (ii) Given below is a description of various components of the circulatory system. Read the information and fill in the blanks: [5] The heart is a crucial organ in the circulatory system, responsible for pumping blood throughout the body. The deoxygenated blood returns to the heart through the (1)____, entering the right atrium. From there, it moves into the right ventricle, which pumps it into the (2)____ for oxygenation in the lungs. After the blood is oxygenated, it returns to the heart and enters the (3)____, which then sends the oxygen-rich blood into the (4)____ to supply the rest of the body. The (5)____ serves as the natural pacemaker of the heart, regulating the heartbeat and ensuring efficient blood flow. (iii) Given below is the diagram of the human brain. Match the structure marked (A) to (E) with their correct names. [5] Example: (F) - (6) Cerebellum Human Brain Parts 4 of 8 1. Medulla 2. Frontal lobe 3. Parietal lobe 4. Temporal lobe 5. Occipital lobe 6. Cerebellum (iv) Read the explanation given below and answer the following: (a) The basic building blocks of DNA and RNA, consisting of a sugar, phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. (b) The small openings on the leaf epidermis that allow for gas exchange. (c) A condition caused by insufficient thyroid hormone, leading to stunted growth and other developmental issues in children. (d) The primary hormone produced in the ovaries that regulates the menstrual cycle and female reproductive system. (e) The sequence of nucleotides in DNA that encodes for a specific trait or function. (v) Arrange and rewrite the terms in each group in the correct order so as to be in a logical sequence beginning with the term that is underlined. (a) Testes, Urethra, Vas-deferens, Prostrate gland, Seminal vesicle. (b) Cornea, Retina, Vitreous humour, Conjunctiva, Lens (c) Follicular phase, Ovulatory phase, Luteal phase, Menstrual phase (d) Ramapithecus, Homo habilis, Cro-Magnon, Australopithecus, Homo sapiens (e) DCT, PCT, Bowman's capsule, Loop of Henle, Collecting duct [5] [5] SECTION B (Attempt any four questions from this Section) Question 3 (i) Define a cell. [1] (ii) Differentiate between synapse and synapsis based on the definition. [2] (iii) Name any two inorganic content of the urine. [2] (iv) Make a Punnett square to show a cross between a homozygous dwarf pea plant with a heterozygous tall pea plant. [2] 5 of 8 (v) Dr. Alex is an ENT surgeon. He explained you an ear diagram with several structures with varying shapes and sizes. Based on your learning, answer the following questions. [3] (a) Name the part labelled D. (b) Identify the part associated with dynamic balance. (c) Identify the part known as tympanic membrane. Question 4 (i) What is adrenal virilism? [1] (ii) Differentiate between tubectomy and vasectomy based on definition. [2] (iii) Ratnam enters a dark room from a brightly lit area. He experiences difficulty in viewing objects, but gradually his vision improves. Explain. (iv) What is the scientific name of: [2] [2] (a) Peppered moth. (b) Pea plant. (v) Observe the diagram shown below and answer the questions that follow. [3] (a) Identify the part B. (b) Write the function of part A. (c) Name the part connecting A with the fetus. Question 5 (i) Define parthenocary? [1] 6 of 8 (ii) Differentiate between diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus based on the hormone. [2] (iii) Explain two reasons of population explosion in India. [2] (iv) Write any two methods of contraception by barrier method. [2] (v) Observe the diagram of a plant cell in a solution and answer the questions that follow. [3] (a) What type of solution (part B) is the plant cell placed in? (b) What term describes the process shown above in the plant cell? (c) What type of solution (part A) is present between the cell wall and the cell membrane? Question 6 (i) What is a gout? [1] (ii) Differentiate between Mendelian phenotype and genotype based on monohybrid ratios. [2] (iii) Why pancreas is known as a dual gland? [2] (iv) Name the WBCs shown in the diagram. [2] (a) (b) (v) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. [3] Question 7 (i) State the law of independent assortment. [1] (ii) Differentiate between mortality and natality based on their definition. [2] (iii) What does DDT stand for, and what is its role in agriculture? [2] (iv) Name the stage following anaphase and its identifying characteristic. [2] (v) In the inverted funnel experiment shown below, study the experimental setup carefully. 7 of 8 Based on the information provided, answer the following questions. [3] (a) What is the aim of the experiment. (b) Name a plant other than hydrilla that can be used for this experiment. (c) How to test the gas in the test tube? Question 8 (i) Write the main function of oxytocin. [1] (ii) Differentiate between Light and Dark reactions based on location in chloroplast. [2] (iii) Write the full form of : [2] (a) ACTH (b) IAA (iv) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a sperm. [2] (v) Observe the diagram and answer the questions that follow. [3] (a) Name the pathway shown in the diagram. (b) What do you mean by white matter? (c) Give one example for this phenomenon. **** 8 of 8 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-I (2024-2025) SUBJECT HISTORY &CIVICS Std.: X Date: 04/12/2024 Max. Marks: 80 Duration: 2 h Answers to this Paper must be written on the answer sheet provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part Il, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of five questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [1]. PART 1 Attempt all questions from this Part Question 1 Choose the correct option: [16] i. The number of members elected to the Rajya Sabha from the states is_________. a. 238 b. 235 c. 236 d. 230 ii. Given below are the details of a few Indian citizens. Person W X Y Z Age (In years) 65 yrs 35 yrs 22 yrs 33 yrs Description An industrialist who has been declared bankrupt. Has taken up citizenship of USA Is a reputed sportsperson Is a Scientist Select the person who fulfils the criteria to become the Prime Minister of India. a. W b. X c. Y d. Z iii. The settlements of over 8,160 cases has brought financial relief of more than Rs.191 core to the people who attended the Lok Adalat s. -The Economic Times Which advantage of the Lok Adalat is highlighted in the above headline? a. saves money b. saves time c. speedy justice d. works on compromise This paper consists of 5 printed pages. iv. Which body is authorised to make amendments related to the newspaper article given below? a. Supreme Court b. High Court c. Parliament d. The President v. Choose the powers which DO NOT apply to the Rajya Sabha. P: Introduction of a Money Bill. Q: Passing of an Ordinary Bill. R: Passing of a No-Confidence Motion. S. Impeachment of judges. a. P and Q b. P and R c. Q and S d. All of the above vi. The lower court has passed an order in a criminal case. However, the High Court feels that the correct procedure has not been followed and reviews the case again. Which Jurisdiction is the High Court exercising in the above situation? a. Revisory Jurisdiction b. Original Jurisdiction c. Advisory Jurisdiction d. Appellate Jurisdiction vii. Read the two statements given below about the revolt of 1857, and select the option that shows the correct relationship between (A) and (R). Assertion: (A) The British stopped the pension being given to Nanasaheb. Reason: (R) The Doctrine of Lapse did not recognise the right of adopted heirs. a. Both (A)and (R)are true but independent of each other. b. (A) contradicts (R) c. (A) is true but (R) is False. d. (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the reason for A. viii. The government of country X has decided to reduce the age limit of the candidates taking up the Civil Service Examinations on the same lines as Lord Lytton. By how many years will the age limit be reduced? a. One year b. Three months c. Six months d. Two years 2 ix. Arrest of which of the following leaders sparked off an agitation in Amritsar culminating in the the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh. a. Ali Bothers b. Mahatma Gandhi c. Lala Lajpat Rai d. Dr Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlu x. Arrange the following events in chronological order. i. Treaty of Versailles ii. Hitler s invasion of Poland iii. Japanese attack on Pearl Harbour iv. Japanese invasion of China a) i, ii , iii , iv. b) i, iv , ii, iii c) i, iii, iv, ii d) i. iv, iii, ii xi. The Durga Puja of Kolkata has received the intangible heritage tag. Which of the following agencies of the United Nations is autorised to give this tag? a. UNICEF b. UNESCO c. UNDP d. ILO xii. Identify the odd one out of the objectives of the INA? a. To fight with the British with modern arms. b. To work out a treaty for transfer of power. c. To organise a provincial government of Free India. d. Total mobalisation of man power. xiii. Pawar Public School has organised an essay writing competition on the topic Practice of Sati in India . Which social reformer will the students most likely quote in their essays? a. Raja Ram Mohan Roy b. Jyotiba Phule c. Dadabhai Naoroji d. Savitribai Phule xiv. Which of these slogans was given by Mahatma Gandhi? a. Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it. b. Do or Die c. Delhi Chalo d Self sacrifice is the real force 3 xv. (A) In the post-World War period, totalitarian dictatorships emerged under different names in Italy ,Germany Russia, and Spain. (B) They sacrificed the individual for the sake of the state. a. Both A and B are true but independent of each other. b. A contradicts B c. A is true but B is False. d. A and B are true and A is the reason for B. xvi. Japanese formed a special force called the ________. a. b. c. d. INA. Kamikaze Forward Bloc Indian Independence League. Question 2 Read the given news carefully: i) Parliament session highlights: Totally 13 opposition MPs suspended, SR Parthiban s suspension revoked. - Hindustan Times Who can suspend the members of the Lok Sabha? Mention one probable circumstance under which he/she can suspend. [2] ii) How is Sessions Court different from the Court of a District Judge? [2] iii) Imagine you were asked to defend Hitler s attack on Poland in a school debate. Mention two ways in which you will justify the attack. [2] iv) Mention two methods of Assertive Nationalists. [2] v) Mention two objectives of the Muslim League. [2] vi) State two common ideologies of the dictators. [2] vii) What is the composition of the Security Council? [2] PART II SECTION A Attempt any two questions from this section Question 3 India has opted for a federal system of governance with a strong unitary bias, In this context answer the following questions: a) List three conditions when the Parliament can make laws on matters in the state list. [3] b) State any three Financial powers of the Parliament. [3] c) Give reasons to justify that the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha. [4] Question 4 The Constitution provides a Council of Ministers to aid and advice the President. In this context answer the following questions: a) State any three Executive powers of the President. [3] b) Mention three ways by which the Parliament exercises its control over the Council of Ministers. [3] c) Distinguish between Individual and Collective Responsibility of the Council of ministers. [4] Question 5. The Supreme Court is the custodian of the Constitution.In the light of this statement, explain the following: a) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? What is the term of the Supreme Court Judge? b) What is meant by the term Writ ? Name any two Writs issued by the Courts. c) What is meant by the following terms with reference to the Supreme Court? i. Advisory Jurisdiction ii. Judicial Review [3] [3] [4] 4 SECTION B Attempt any three questions from this section Question 6 Read the excerpt and answer the questions: "To my great regret it has been impossible to obtain agreement either on the Cabinet Mission Plan, or any plan that would preserve the unity of India. But there can be no question of coercing any large areas in which one community has a majority to live against their will under a government in which another community has a majority. And the only alternative to coercion is partition." -India Today web desk -18th July,2017 a) Mention any three clauses of the Cabinet Mission plan. b) State any three terms of the Mountbatten Plan. c) The Congress was compelled to accept the Mountbatten plan. Mention any four ways that in which the Congress justified its acceptance. [3] [3] [4] Question 7 The second half of the 19th century witnessed With reference to the above, answer the following questions: a) State any three repressive colonial policies of Lord Lytton. [3] b) State three ways in which the press played an important role in developing Nationalism amongst Indians. [3] c) Mention the contributions of Gopal Krishna Gokhale. [4] Question 8 With reference to the Gandhian era, answer the following questions: a) Why did the Simon Commission come to India? State two reasons why it faced opposition by the Indians. [3] b) Mention any two programmes of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Why was this movement suspended? [3] c) Mention any two impacts of both the Non-cooperation as well as the Civil Disobedience Movement. [4] Question 9 Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions: a) How many dollars did Germany have to pay as a reparation cost? Mention two ways by which the German military was affected. b) What was the immediate cause of the war which led to the signing of the treaty depicted above. Who organised the assassination? What was the objective? c) Besides what is depicted in the image, state and explain two other events that led to a turning point in History after WW I. Question 10 The United Nations Organisation is a peace keeping organisation. With reference to the above statement, answer the following questions: a) State the composition of the International Court of Justice. b) State any three objectives of the United Nations Organisation. c) What is the expansion of WHO? Mention any three functions of this agency. [3] [3] [4] [3] [3] [4] 5 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-I (2024 2025) SUBJECT: GEOGRAPHY Std: X Max Marks: 80 Date:10/12/2024 Duration: 2h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted. A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. ________________________________________________________________________________ PART-I (30 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this part) QUESTION 1 Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. G43S10 (Eastings 21-31 and Northings 8595)and answer the following questions: (i) (a) Give the six figure grid reference of the Chhatri near the settlement of Kheda. [2] (b) What is the general pattern of settlement in the region given in the map extract? (ii) What is the direction of the Banasriver? What does the line marked in blue on the bed of river Banas indicate? [2] (iii) What is the direct distance in kilometers between Bhakar and Jorapura. [2] (iv) What do you mean by the following: [2] (a) Siphon in grid square 2391 (b) 317 in grid square 2317 (v) (a) What is the main source of irrigation for regions in the SW part of the map extract? [2] (b) State any one reason that indicates Dantiwada is a prominent settlement in the map extract. QUESTION 2 On the outline map of India provided: (i)Mark and label Bengaluru. (ii) Draw and label the important latitude passing through the country. (iii) Mark and label the tributary of an important peninsular river. (iv) Shade and label the Andaman Sea. (v) Mark and name a sparsely populated region in the western part of the country. (vi) Mark and label the Karakoram Pass. (vii) Mark and label the Lake Wular. (viii) Mark and label the Malabar Coast. (ix) Mark and label the largest oilfield of India. (x) Shade and label the region of red soil in North-East India. [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] [1] QUESTION 3 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) [10] (i) The onset of South-west monsoon accompanied with thunder and lightning is referred to as _______. (a) Break in the Monsoon This paper consists of 6 pages. Turn Over (b) Burst of Monsoon (c) Western Disturbances (d) Kalbaishakhi (ii) _____________ soil is used for dry farming. (a) Laterite (b) Bhangar (c) Alluvial (d) Red (iii) Mixed vegetation is seen in which of the following forests? (a) Mountain forest (b) Deciduous forest (c) Rainforests (d) Tidal forests. (iv) Which one of the following methods of irrigation consists of perforated pipes placed between rows of crops and give water directly at the roots? (a) Sprinkler (b) Spray (c) Furrow (d) Drip (v) Which of the following combination of iron ore is known as Red Ore and Black Ore respectively? (a) Magnetite and Siderite (b) Haematite and Limonite (c) Limonite and Siderite (d) Haematite and Magnetite (vi) Assertion (A): West Bengal ranks first in the production of Jute. Reason (R): West Bengal receives heavy rainfall. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (vii) The rearing of silkworms for the production of silk is known as ___________ . (a) Pisciculture (b) Handloom (c) Sericulture (d) Apiculture (viii) Which of the following iron and steel plant was set up with technical cooperation from the German firm Krupps and Demag? (a) Visakhapatnam Steel Plant (b) TISCO (c) Rourkela Steel Plant (d) Salem Steel Plant (ix) Which of the following two cities are connected by the East-West Corridor of the National Highway project? (a) Silchar- Mumbai 2 (b) Silchar-Porbandar (c) Guwahati-Ahmedabad (d) Guwahati-Porbandar (x) Which of the following is an example of reusing of waste? (a) The Rock Garden in Chandigarh (b) A road made from waste plastic (c) Using scientific techniques to evaporate liquid waste (d) Manufacturing paper pulp from bagasse. PART II (50 Marks) (Attempt any five questions from this Part) QUESTION 4 (i) Name the different seasons in India stating the months when they are experienced. [2] (ii) (a) Name a state that is benefitted agriculturally by the Western Disturbances. (b) What is October Heat? [2] (iii) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: (a) Chennai does not receive much rainfall from southwest monsoons. (b) Shimla is cooler than Delhi in summer. (c) Jaipur experiences continental climate. [3] (iv) Study the table given below and answer questions that follow: [3] Station A B Temp(0C) Rainfall (cm) Temp(0C) Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec 16.8 0.5 19.2 0.6 26.6 0.3 29.8 0.3 33.3 1.0 33.9 3.1 31.3 10.8 29 13.1 20.1 5.7 27 0.8 20.1 14.9 0.3 0.2 24.5 25.7 27.7 30.4 33 32.5 31 30.2 29.8 28 25.9 24.7 Rainfall 4.6 1.3 1.3 1.8 3.8 4.5 8.7 11.3 11.9 30.6 35 13.9 (cm) (a) Which is the rainiest month for station A and station B? Mention the rainfall of the months stated by you in cms. (b) Which of these stations is located in the coastal region? Give a reason for your answer. QUESTION 5 (i) Give two points of difference between Black and Alluvial soil. (ii) Identify the method of soil conservation in the image given below and mention a region in India where it is used. 3 [2] [2] (iii) Give a reason for the following statements: (a) Residual soil has a well-defined soil profile. (b) Red soil requires irrigation for cultivation. (c) Increasing the depth of the river beds can prevent soil erosion. (iv) Ravi visited his aunt s house in Punjab. One of the striking differences that he noticed in the cultivation was that here the major crop cultivated was wheat as in West Bengal where he stayed the major crop was rice. He had learned that the soil in both the places were the same. (a) Name the soil found here and write one important characteristic feature of the soil. (b) How is this soil formed? QUESTION 6 (i) State two benefits of the protective functions of forests. (ii) Name the following: (a) Type of vegetation found in Sunderbans. (b) Planting trees on land where forest did not exist previously. (iii) (a) What is forest conservation? (b) Distinguish between agro forestry and social forestry. [3] [3] [2] [2] [3] (iv) Balan from Assam recently visited Rajasthan with his parents and elder sister and was surprised to see the difference in the type of trees seen in his hometown and the visiting state. (a)Name the type of vegetation seen by him. (b)What differences in characteristics did he find between the vegetation of the two states? [3] QUESTION 7 (i) Give two reasons why well irrigation is popular in North India. [2] (ii) (a) Mention any one disadvantage of tank irrigation. (b) In which part of India is it mainly practiced. [2] (iii) Observe the given image and answer the following questions: [3] (a) What is meant by rain water harvesting? (b) Mention any one traditional method of rain water harvesting. (c) State any one objective of rain water harvesting 4 (iv) Give reasons for the following: (a) Perennial canals are preferred over inundation canals. (b) Ground water reserves are depleting at a fast rate. (c) Drip irrigation reduces loss of water through evaporation. QUESTION 8 (i) (a) Why is manganese an important raw material for iron and steel industry? (b) Name one iron-ore field in Jharkhand. (ii) Give reasons for the following: (a) Petroleum is versatile in nature. (b) Copper is used extensively in manufacturing electrical equipment. [3] [2] [2] (iii) Name the following: (a) Inferior Iron ore. (b) Largest coalfield in India. (c) A metallic mineral for which the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh is famous. [3] (iv) Answer the following: (a) What is the advantage of non-conventional sources of energy? (b) On which river is the Hirakud Power Project located? (c) Why are minerals important for the economic development of a country? [3] QUESTION 9 (i) Mention any two problems of Indian agriculture. [2] (ii) Give two differences between intensive and extensive farming. [2] (iii) Answer the following: (a) Which state is the largest producer of wheat in our country? (b) What is an advantage of the transplantation method of rice cultivation? (c) State any one by-product of sugarcane and mention its use. [3] (iv) Give a geographic reason for each of the following: (a) Rice is grown throughout the year. (b) Pulses are grown as rotational crops. (c) Tea plants must be pruned at regular intervals. [3] QUESTION 10 (i) With reference to the Rourkela Iron and Steel plant: (a) Name the two rivers at the confluence of which the plant is located. (b) State the source from where it obtains iron ore and coal. [2] (ii) Give two reasons why Ahmedabad in Gujarat is famous for cotton-textile industry. [2] (iii) With reference to silk industry answer the following questions: (a) Name any two varieties of silk manufactured in India. (b) Why is Karnataka famous for silk industry? (c) Differentiate between village and cottage industry. [3] 5 (iv) (a) Rapid industrialization is essential for agriculture . (b) Petrochemical products are gaining popularity in recent times. Explain with one point. QUESTION 11 (i) Transport is the backbone of a country s economy. Give two reasons to support the statement. (ii) Give two reasons why airways play an important role in the NE part of the country. [3] [2] [2] (a) Mention any one reason why inland waterways are better developed in Northern India. [3] (iii) (b) Vande Bharat is a medium-distance superfast express service operated by Indian railways State any two advantages of using rail transport. (iv) State three advantages of coastal shipping. [3] QUESTION 12 (i) Mention two reasons for the need of waste management. (ii) Indian rivers, especially the smaller ones, have turned into the toxic streams. Even the big ones like the Ganga and Yamuna are far from being pure. [2] [2] (a)What is the reason for the Indian rivers to get highly polluted? (b) Suggest a step to reduce the damage. (iii) (a) How do CFCs released into the atmosphere cause ozone layer depletion? (b) Mention one effect of acid rain. [3] (iv) What is Land filling? State two advantages of it. [3] ***************************************************************** 6 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION-I (2024-2025) SUBJECT- COMPUTER APPLICATIONS Std.: X Max. Marks: 100 Date: 12/12/2024 Duration: 2 h Answer to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. This paper is divided into two Sections. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. SECTION A (40 Marks) Attempt all questions Question 1 [20] Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) (i) Identify the Java property depicted in the image: Java Class File (a) Object Oriented Programming (b) Robust (c) Platform independent (d) Inheritance (ii) Which of the following makes variable as a constant? (a) static (b) const (c) class (d) final (iii) The output of the following code is: System.out.println(Math.pow(64, )+Math.floor(-8.1)) (a) 0 (b) -8 (c) -7 (d) 17 (iv) The total size in bytes, of the array a[4] of char data type is_____ (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 This Paper consists of 8 printed pages. Turn over (v) Variable that is declared with in the body of a method is termed as: (a) Instance variable (b) class variable (c) Local variable (d) Argument variable (vi) Return data type of the String function replace( char , char ) (a) char (b) int (c) String (d) boolean (vii) State the value of y after the following is executed: char x='7'; y= Character.toUppecase(x); (a) false (b) 7 (c) true (d) 7 (viii) Give the output of the following string methods: "MISSISSIPPI".indexOf('I')+ "MISSISSIPPI".lastIndexOf('I') (a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 20 (d) 11 (ix) Corresponding wrapper class of int data type is __________. (a) integer (b) INTEGER (c) Int (d) Integer (x) Which of the following operator has the highest precedence while evaluating the expression? (a) % (b) + (c) ++ (d) && 2 of 8 (xi) Give the output of the following: int x; for ( x=l; x<=3; x++ ); System.out.print (x); (a) 123 (b) 1234 (c) 4 (d) 1 (xii) The access modifier that gives least accessibility is: (a) private (b) public (c) protected (d) package (xiii) A variable that is bounded to the object itself is called as: (a) Instance variable (b) class variable (c) Local variable (d) Argument variable (xiv) Assertion(A): The index of last element of an array is equal to the number of elements in the array Reason(R): The index of an array begins with 0. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A). (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (xv) In this technique, the array is divided into two halves. At each stage, compares the sought key value with the key value of the middle element of the array. (a) Linear Search (b) Binary Search (c) Bubble Sort (d) Selection Sort 3 of 8 (xvi) Invoking a method by passing the objects of a class is termed as: (a) Call by reference (b) Call by value (c) Call by method (d) Call by constructor (xvii) Give the output of the following code: String A ="26.0", B="74.0"; double C= Double.parseDouble(A); double D = Double.parseDouble(B); System.out.println((int)(C+D)); (a) 100.0 (b) 26.074.0 (c) 100 (d) 2674 (xviii) Which of the following mathematical method returns only an integer? (a) Math.ceil(n) (b) Math.sqrt(n) (c) Math.floor(n) (d) Math.round(n) (xix) Assertion(A): In Java, more than one method can be created with the same name. Reason(R): Java implements polymorphism that allows methods to be overloaded. (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion (A). (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Assertion (A). (c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. (xx) Which of the following is not true with regards to the Constructor? (a) Constructors are overloaded automatically (b) Constructors should have void or any return data type. (c) Constructor name should be the same name as the class name (d) Constructors gets invoked automatically when we create an object of the class. 4 of 8 Question 2 (i) Write Java expression for [2] (ii) A student executes the following program segment and gets an error. Identify the statement which has an error, correct the same to get the output as NORTH. [2] int ch = N switch(ch) { case N : System.out.println( NORTH ); case S : System.out.println( SOUTH ); } (iii) Rewrite the following code without using the logical operator. [2] if(a>b && a>c) max=a; (iv) Give the output of the following program segment and also mention how many times the loop is executed: [2] int i, p=1; for(i=1; i>=5; i++) { if(i==4) break; p=p*i; } System.out.println(p); (v) Evaluate the following expression if the value of x=8: [2] x% = x-- + --x x++; (vi) Write the output of the following String methods: [2] (a) ICSE EXAMINATION .substring(5,9) (b) COMPUTER STUDIES .compareTo( COMPUTER ) (vii) Consider the following program segment and answer the questions given below: [2] int a[] = {2, 4, 6, 5, 10}; (a) a.length (b) Math.sqrt(a[2]+a[4]) 5 of 8 (viii) Give the output of the following code: [2] char ch = A ; int x = 32, y=2; System.out.println(ch+y); System.out.println((char)(ch+x+y)); (ix) Students executes the following program segment and the code has an error. Name the error. How the program can be modified to get the correct answer. [2] int a[ ] = new int(5); for(int i=0; i<=5; i++) a[i] = i; (x) Consider the following code and answer the questions given below: [2] public class Example { public int x, y; public static int a, b; } (a) Name the variables that are common to all objects of the class. (b) Name the variables for which each objects of the class will have its own distinct copy. SECTION B (60 Marks) Attempt any four questions from this Section. The answer in this Section should consist of the Programs in either BlueJ environment or any program environment with java as the base. Each program should be written using Variable description/Mnemonic Codes such that the logic of the program is clearly depicted. Flow-Charts and Algorithms are not required. Question 3 [15] Write a program to initialise names of 12 months of a year and their corresponding number of days, store in two different single dimensional arrays. Enter month name for searching, if found display number of days in a month otherwise display Invalid month name . Months- January, February, March, April, May, June, July, August, September, October, November, December Days 31, 28, 31, 30, 31, 30, 31, 31, 30, 31, 30, 31 6 of 8 Question 4 [15] Define a class named Airlines with the following description: Instance Variables/ Data members: String name: To store name of the passenger/group head int n: To store number of tickets char dcode: To store destination code i.e. A for America, S for Singapore, J for Japan and T for Thailand. int Total_amt: To store total ticket amount. double dis: To store discount amount. double amt : To store total ticket amount to be paid after discount. Member methods: Airlines() : A constructor to initialise default values to all the data members. void accept(): To input name of passenger/group head, number of tickets and destination code. void calculate(): An airlines announces discount on tickets depending upon the destination chosen by the passenger from the following: Destination America (A or a) Singapore (S or s) Japan (J or j) Thailand (T or t) Rate of ticket (Per person) Rs.50,000 Rs.20,000 Rs.40,000 Rs.30,000 Calculate discount and amount to be paid after the discount. The discount will be given as per the given criteria: Total Ticket amount Above Rs.200000 Rs.150001 to Rs.200000 Rs.100001 to Rs.150000 Less than Rs.100000 Discount on Total ticket amount 25% 20% 15% 10% void display(): To display the name of the passenger/group head, number of tickets, destination code, discount amount and amount to be paid after discount. Write a main method to create an object of the class and call the above member methods. 7 of 8 Question 5 [15] Design a class overload a function Display() as follows: (i) void Display( ) Generate the following pattern: JAVA JAV JA J (ii) double Display(int n) with one integer argument and returns the sum of the following series: Sum = .n terms Question 6 [15] Define a class to accept two strings of same length and form a new word in such a way that, the first character of the first word is followed by the first character of the second word and so on. Example: Input string 1 BALL Input string 2 WORD OUTPUT: BWAOLRLD Question 7 [15] Design a class to overload a method Number( ) as follows: (i) void Number (int num , int d) - To count and display the frequency of a digit in a number. Example: num = 2565685 d=5 Frequency of digit 5 = 3 (ii) void Number (int n1) - To find and display the sum of even digits of a number. Example: n1 = 29865 Sum of even digits = 16 Write a main method to create an object and invoke the above methods. Question 8 [15] Write a program to input 10 integer elements and store in a single dimensional array. Suppress the negative elements of an array to bottom without altering the original sequence of the array. Sample Input : 5 , -4 , 3 , -2 , 6 , -11 , 12 , -8 , 9, 10 Sample Output : 5 , 3 , 6, 12 , 9 , 10, -4 , -2 , -11 , -8 8 of 8 PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I (2024 25) SUBJECT: ECONOMICS Std: X Max Marks: 80 Date:13 /12/2024 Duration: 2h Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ]. Section A (Attempt all questions from this section) Question 1 Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options: (Do not copy the questions, write the correct answers only) [16] (i) Assertion(A): Land is considered a fixed factor of production. Reason(R): The quantity of land available for production cannot be increased significantly in the short term. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (ii) Assertion (A): Cross demand refers to the demand for two goods that are unrelated, where the demand for one good has no impact on the other. Reason (R): Cross demand applies only to substitute goods, where the increase in the price of one good leads to a decrease in the demand for the other. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) Both A and R are incorrect. (iii) Price elasticity of supply is likely to be ____________in the long run. (a) perfectly inelastic. (b) perfectly elastic. (c) elastic (d) inelastic (iv) If the price of coffee increases, how will it affect the supply of tea? (a) Supply of tea decreases. (b) Supply of tea increases (c) Supply of tea will remain same (d) Indeterminant Page 1 of 5 (v) ISRO (Indian Space Research organisation) is an example of which form of market? (a) (b) (c) (d) Perfect competition Monopolistic competition Oligopoly Monopoly (vi) Homogeneous products are sold under____________. (a) Perfect competition (b) Oligopoly market (c) Monopoly market (d) monopolistic competition (vii) Assertion(A): The central bank acts as a lender of the last resort. Reason (R): It provides loans to commercial banks during financial crisis to maintain stability in the financial system. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. (b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A. (c) A is true but R is false. (d) A is false but R is true. (viii) Identify the type of goods represented by the visuals. (a) (b) (c) (d) (ix) Substitute goods Complementary goods Giffen goods Veblen goods In India, the regulation of money supply is managed by the ______________. (a) HDFC Bank (b) Reserve Bank of India (c) NITI Aayog (d) State Bank of India Page 2 of 5 (x) GST stands for____________. (a) Goods and Services Trade (b) Great Services Tax (c) Goods and Services Tax (d) Goods and Simple Tax (xi) Gift tax and wealth tax are examples of_____________. (a) Direct tax (b) Subsidies (c) Indirect tax (d) Allowances (xii) Identify the type of expenditure done by the government as shown in the picture given below. (a) (b) (c) (d) Capital expenditure Revenue expenditure unproductive expenditure Annual expenditure (xiii) Which of the following statement is true about public debt? (a) It can be raised only within the country. (b) It can be raised forcibly. (c) It cannot be raised for a long. (d) It can be taken both within and outside the country. (xiv) Demand for goods increases during _______________. (a) deflation (b) inflation (c) stagnation (d) depression (xv) Hallmark is used as a logo for which one of the following? (a) Agricultural products (b) Electrical goods (c) Edible oils (d) Jewellery (xvi) Name the system in which the double coincidence of wants is an essential feature. (a) Banking system (b) Barter system (c) Money economy (d) Global economy Page 3 of 5 Question 2 (i) State any two causes for the growth of public expenditure. (ii) Mention two reasons for consumer exploitation in India. (iii) A mild inflation is beneficial for economic growth. Justify the statement. (iv) Riya's father, a salaried professional has to pay income tax based on his earnings. Riya, while discussing the issue of taxes, says, "Taxes are a burden on the middle class and only the rich should pay taxes." (a) Do you agree with Riya's statement? Justify your answer with a suitable reason related to the role of taxes in a country. [2] [2] [2] [2] Question 3 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Explain the two sources of public revenue. [2] Briefly explain two quantitative methods of credit control adopted by the Reserve Bank of India. [2] How online banking has made life easy for a businessman? Explain with an example. [2] Neha noticed that many people in her neighbourhood were looking for a convenient way to buy fresh, organic vegetables. She decided to start a small business by selling organic vegetables directly to customers at their doorsteps. She invested in a small vehicle and started delivering fresh vegetables every morning. [2] (a) Based on the above scenario, state any two reasons that makes Neha an entrepreneur. Question 4 (i) Mention two characteristics of Labour. (ii) Define elasticity of demand. A store increases the price of winter jackets and the quantity demanded decreases significantly. Based on this, is the demand for winter jackets elastic or inelastic? Explain. (iii)How does money act as a store of value? (iv) State any two objectives of the fiscal policy in a developing economy. [2] [2] [2] [2] SECTION B (Attempt any four questions in this section) Question 5 (i) Read the following Case Study carefully and answer the questions on the basis of the same: Food adulteration in India is widespread. It is done in common items like grains, honey, fats and oils etc. For example, grains are adulterated with polished stones, honey is adulterated with sugar syrup. These practices are often driven by the desire for higher profits at the cost of consumer health. The government has introduced measures like food safety regulations and testing of food products, but enforcement is still weak and food adulteration continues to be a significant problem. [5] (a) Define food adulteration. (b) Explain any three harmful effects of food adulteration. (ii) Explain any five rights of the consumers accepted by the Indian law. [5] Page 4 of 5 Question 6 (i) (ii) Define cost push inflation. Explain the factors that causes cost push inflation. Explain the evil effects of inflation on the economy. [5] [5] Question 7 (i) (ii) State the law of demand. With the help of a hypothetical table, draw the demand curve for a commodity. Sate two circumstances under which the demand curve slopes upwards to the right. Discuss any three factors determining price elasticity of demand. Draw the demand curve showing(a) perfectly elastic demand. (b) Elasticity of demand less than one. [5] [5] Question 8 (i) (ii) In a local market, there are several shops selling similar varieties of handmade soaps, but each shop offers a slightly different fragrance and packaging. One of the shops, "Fresh Scents," has gained a lot of popularity because of its unique lavender fragrance and attractive packaging. As a result, the shop can charge a higher price for its soaps compared to other shops in the market. [5] (a) Define monopolistic competition. (b) Explain how this situation reflects the characteristics of a monopolistic competition market. Define oligopoly with an example. Distinguish between perfect competition and monopoly. [5] Question 9 (i) (ii) Distinguish between a central bank and a commercial bank. Explain the three important functions of a commercial bank. Mention the two types of cheques. [5] [5] Question 10 (i) (ii) How does the division of labour improve efficiency and production? Mention any two characteristics of capital. Analyse the factors that contribute to the low rate of capital formation in developing countries. Page 5 of 5 [5] [5] PAWAR PUBLIC SCHOOL, HADAPSAR, PUNE PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION I - (2024-2025) SUBJECT PHYSICAL EDUCATION Std. :X Max. Marks: 100 Date :12/12/2024 Duration: 2h Answers to this paper must be written on the paper provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Section A and any two questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in [ ]. SECTION - A (50 Marks) Attempt all questions from this Section Question 1 Choose the correct answer to the question from the given options. ( Do not copy the questions, write the correct answers only) (i) The three bones that articulate at the knee are . a) Tibia, Fibula, Patella b) Tibia, Fibula, Femur c) Femur, Fibula, Patella d) Tibia, Femur, Patella (ii) In the technical terms, muscles pull is known as: a) Sprain b) Strain c) Abrasion d) Contusion (iii) Which body type can be characterized by apple shape body? a) Ectomorph b) Endomorph c) Mesomorph d) Hectomorph (iv) What does an Mesomorph refer to? a) Wider hips than shoulders b) Hyperactive c) Relaxed d) Muscular This paper consist of 8 pages [20] Page 1 (v) Manisha is a kho-kho coach and she is 48 years old. Calculate her MHR? a) 220 48 = 272 b) 200 48 = 252 c) 210 48 = 262 d) 230 48 = 282 (vi) Which among the following improves the agility of a kabaddi player? a) Zig-zag run b) 1000 m run c) Squats d) Medicine ball throw. (vii) According to the of sports training, people respond differently to the same training stimulus. a) Principle of individuality b) Principle of adaptation c) Principle of recovery d) Principle of specificity. (viii) The duration of quadrennial cycle is: a) 1 year b) 1 week c) 4 year d) 4 weeks (ix) Mr. Rohan is a National kho-kho coach, wanted to assess the cardiovascular endurance of the kho-kho players. Which physical fitness test do you think he must have used? a) The cooper run test b) Sit and reach test c) Push-ups test d) Sit-ups test (x) If you don t use it you will lose it is best described as .. a) Specificity b) Reversibility c) Progression d) Intensity (xi) Match the following I. Flexibility II. Agility III. Balance IV. Muscular Strength This paper consist of 8 pages 1. Shuttle run test 2. Balance beam test 3. Push-ups test 4. Sit and reach test Page 2 a) I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3 b) I-1, II-2, III-4, IV-3 c) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2 d) I-4, II-1, III-2, IV-3 (xii) The human body is capable of repairing its own tissues, but only if it gets proper .. time every day. a) Rest b) Leisure c) Work out d) Free (xiii) Hormone responsible for the secondary sexual characteristic changes in males. a) Estrogen b) Testosterone c) Endocrine d) Pituitary gland (xiv) Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R): Assertion (A): Development occurs only through genetic inheritance and does not involve external influence. Reason (R): Development can be influenced by social and cultural factors, which shapes an individual s growth and learning experiences. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? a) Both (A) and ( R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). b) Both (A) and ( R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true and ( R) is false. d) (A) is False and ( R) is true. (xv) Suman is suffering from beriberi disease, which deficiency she lacking? a) Vitamin B2 b) Vitamin B12 c) Vitamin B1 d) Vitamin B3 (xvi) are made up of the elements such as carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Minerals d) Vitamins This paper consist of 8 pages Page 3 (xvii) Physical education is the sum of those .. which come to the individual. a) Observations b) Results c) Aims d) Experiences. (xviii) Given below are the two statements labeled Assertion (A) and Reason (R): Assertion (A): Nutrition is the method in which the food is consumed by the organism and utilizing the nutrients from the food. Reason (R): Malnutrition, both undernutrition and overnutrition , can lead to various health problems. In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? a) Both (A) and ( R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). b) Both (A) and ( R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). c) (A) is true and ( R) is false. d) (A) is False and ( R) is true. xix) The purpose of cool down after exercise is to a) General warm up b) Increase heart rate c) Prevents venous pooling in the lower extremities d) Increase blood circulation (xx) What is the shin splint injury? a) Tibialis (Posterior) muscle is injured b) Tibialis (anterior) muscle is injured Agility c) Pain in lower leg d) Pain in calf. Question 2 (i) Analyze how wearing the recommended protective gear contribute to the prevention of injuries. (ii) Mr. Prashant is taekwondo coach and he always instructed to his taekwondo students to adhere to uninterrupted training sessions. Explain which principle does this instruction did he align with? (iii) Give three reasons why we should increase the amount of fibre in our diet. (iv) Differentiate between slow twitch and fast twitch muscle fibres. Question 3 (i) What is a tennis elbow injury? (ii) How is sports training important in improvement in the rate of waste product removal? (iii) Flexibility is an essential component of physical fitness. Discuss. This paper consist of 8 pages [2] [2] [3] [3] [2] [2] [3] Page 4 (iv) Mr. Abhay is kabaddi caoch, Mr. Rahul is football coach and Mr. Sakharam is basketball coach in Blue Diamond School. Mr. Abhay have ectomorph body type, Mr. Rahul have mesomorph body type and Mr. Sakharam have endomorph body type. Write any two characteristics of each body type. Question 4 (i) During the final kabaddi match of Annual Sports Day Raman, one of the player from Nilgiri house tackled by the Himalaya house players and he was injured. The referees immediately stopped the match and called medical help. Raman had difficulty in standing up. Naman another team player of Raman s team had certain questions which are listed below. Kindly clear the doubts of Raman by answering the questions? 1. If there is a broken bone it will be a: 2. In case of sprain the first-aid given will be: (ii) Enlist the objective of physical education related to the aspect of emotional Development. (iii) Briefly explain the variance principle of sport s training. (iv) Write down the different stages of life with age span. [3] [2] [2] [3] [3] SECTION B (50 Marks) Attempt two questions from this Section. You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice. CRICKET Question 5 (i) (a) Write any four different shots played by the batsman. (b) Differentiate between ODI and test match cricket. (ii) (a) Mention any six fielding positions on the on side of the field. (b) Write a short note on Irani Trophy. (c) When is batsman considered to be out stumped. (iii) Explain the following: (a) Maiden Over (b) Golden Duck (c) Dead Rubber (d) Sight Screen [8] [9] [8] Question 6 (a) Miss Aruna and Miss Manisha were an umpire in cricket match. In a tense moment, one batsman hesitates to run initially after hitting a shot but then attempts to complete a run upon realizing the opportunity. He finishes the first run quickly and goes for the second run. The fielder directs the ball towards the wicketkeeper and he collects the ball and breaks the wickets before the batsman or bat of the batsman This paper consist of 8 pages Page 5 (ii) (iii) grounded in the popping crease. During this situation Miss Aruna the leg umpire and Miss Manisha the umpire. Answer the following questions. 1. What would be the decision? 2. Who gave this decision? 3. What is the hand signal for this decision? 4. Next batsman will play at which end if it was fourth ball of the over. (b) What are four ways in which batsman can be dismissed? [8] (a) Enumerate any three duties of the Third Umpire. (b) List any three fundamental skills in the game of cricket. (c) How can a team s score be increased in cricket? [9] Draw a neat diagram of cricket field and mark any eight fielding positions on off side for left handed batsman. [8] FOOTBALL Question 7 (i) (ii) Draw a specified diagram of the football ground giving all its dimensions. (a) Under which three situations is a player not considered off-side? (b) State any three ways of trapping the ball. (c) List any three duties of the captain. (iii) Explain the following terms: (a) Final pass (b) Quarter circle (c) Nutmeg (d) GLT. Question 8 Explain the terms: (a) Attacker (b) Sole trapping (c) Outer circle (d) Added Time (ii) (a) What is the advantage in Football? (b) What is the difference between Place Kick and Bicycle Kick? (c) What is the procedure of resuming the game from a corner kick? (iii) Answer the following: (a) Height and width of the goal post (b) Diameter of a centre circle (c) What is the distance of optional mark from corner? And on which line optional mark is marked? (d) Length and width of goal area. [8] [9] [8] (i) This paper consist of 8 pages [8] [9] [8] Page 6 BASKETBALL Question 9 (i) (ii) Draw the diagram of a basketball court and list its dimension. (a) Write any three duties of the Scorer? (b) Explain five and eight second rules of basketball. (c) A basketball referee needs to have keen understanding of when the ball is considered dead during a game. Provide three scenarios during a basketball match when the ball is considered dead. (iii) Explain the following: (a) Back Court (b) Centre Circle (c) Free Throw Line (d) Substitution Question 10 (i) Explain the following: (a) Man to man defense (b) Charging (c) Loose ball (d) A blind pass [8] [9] [8] [8] (ii) (a) Explain jump shot and dunk shot. (b) What is the procedure to start the game of Basketball? (c) List the number of officials required to conduct the match of Basketball. (iii) Write the following: (a) Length and width of Basketball court. (b) Diameter of the ring (c) Weight and circumference of the Basketball (d) Total number of players in a team and how many players will play on a court from one team? [9] [8] BADMINTON Question 11 (i) (ii) (a) Mr. Rohan a badminton coach preparing his team for an upcoming tournament, he want to ensure they are well-versed in the various formats of games in badminton. Can you list and briefly explain any four formats in which the game that players may encounter during the tournament? (b) What is the procedure for conducting a tiebreaker to resolve a tied set in the match of badminton? [8] (a) What are the types of services? Explain them briefly. (b) Explain the term rubber in the game of badminton. (c) Write short note on BWF. [9] This paper consist of 8 pages Page 7 (iii) Answer the following: (a) Length and width of badminton court for singles and doubles (b) Length and width of badminton racket (c) Weight of shuttle cock (d) Width of the net [8] Question 12 (i) (ii) (iii) Draw a well labelled diagram of the badminton court with measurements and specifications. (a) Mention any three duties of a referee in badminton. (b) Write a short note on shuttle cock. (c) Write any three situations when shuttle is not in play. Define the terms (a) (b) (c) (d) Love Set All Wide Serve This paper consist of 8 pages [8] [9] [8] Page 8

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