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UGC_NET_JUNE_2012_ENGLISH_PAPAERI_I

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Signature and Name of Invigilator PAPER-I 1. (Signature) __________________________ OMR Sheet No. : ............................................ (To be filled by the Candidate) (Name) ____________________________ 2. (Signature) __________________________ Roll No. (In figures as per admission card) (Name) ____________________________ J 00 1 2 Roll No.________________________________ (In words) Test Booklet Code Time : 1 /4 hours] Number of Pages in this Booklet : 16 Instructions for the Candidates 1 1. Write your roll number in the space provided on the top of this page. 2. This paper consists of sixty (60) multiple-choice type of questions, out of which the candidate would be required to answer any fifty (50) questions. In the event of the candidate attempting more than fifty questions, the first fifty questions attempted by the Candidate would be evaluated. 3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes, you are requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as below : (i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept a booklet without sticker-seal and do not accept an open booklet. (ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in the booklet with the information printed on the cover page. Faulty booklets due to pages/questions missing or duplicate or not in serial order or any other discrepancy should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator within the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be given. (iii) After this verification is over, the Test Booklet Code should be entered in the OMR Sheet and the OMR Sheet Number should be entered on this Test Booklet. 4. Each item has four alternative responses marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on the correct response against each item. Example : where (C) is the correct response. 5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR Sheet given inside this Booklet, which is common for Paper I and Paper II. If you mark at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 6. Read instructions given inside carefully. 7. Rough Work is to be done in the end of this booklet. 8. If you write your Name, Roll Number, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification. 9. You have to return the test question booklet and OMR Original Sheet to the invigilators at the end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are however, allowed to carry duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on conclusion of examination. 10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen. 11. Use of any calculator or log table etc., is prohibited. 12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answers. W-00 W [Maximum Marks : 100 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 60 1. 2. - (60) , (50) 3. , - - , : (i) - - (ii) - / - - (iii) - OMR OMR - 4. (A), (B), (C) (D) : (C) 5. - I - II OMR OMR OMR , 6. 7. (Rough Work) 8. OMR , , , , , 9. - OMR OMR 10. / 11. ( ) 12. P.T.O. FOR OFFICE USE ONLY 1 21 41 2 22 42 3 23 24 43 44 6 25 26 45 46 7 27 8 9 28 47 48 29 49 10 30 50 11 31 51 12 13 32 33 52 53 14 34 54 15 35 55 16 36 56 17 18 19 37 38 57 58 39 40 Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained Question Number Marks Obtained 59 60 4 5 20 Total Marks Obtained (in words) ........................................... (in figures) .......................................... Signature & Name of the Coordinator ................................... (Evaluation) W-00 Date ......................... 2 Paper I I Note : : This paper contains Sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two (2) marks. Candidate is expected to answer any Fifty (50) questions. In case more than Fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the first Fifty (50) questions will be evaluated. (60) (2) (50) (50) (50) 1. Video-Conferencing can be classified as 1. one of the following types of : communication : (A) (A) Visual one way (B) - (B) Audio-Visual one way (C) - (C) Audio-Visual two way (D) (D) Visual two way 2. . . 2. MC National University of Journalism ? and Communication is located at (A) (B) (A) Lucknow (B) Bhopal (C) (D) (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai 3. 3. All India Radio (A.I.R.) for ? broadcasting was named in the year (A) 1926 (B) 1936 (C) 1946 (D) 1956 4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed ? (A) NTCS (B) PAL (C) NTSE (D) SECAM 5. The term DAVP stands for (A) Directorate of Advertising & Vocal Publicity (B) Division of Audio-Visual Publicity (C) Department of Audio-Visual Publicity (D) Directorate of Advertising & Visual Publicity 6. The term TRP is associated with TV shows stands for (A) Total Rating Points (B) Time Rating Points (C) Thematic Rating Points (D) Television Rating Points 7. Which is the number that comes next in the following sequence ? 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____ (A) 60 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 70 W-00 (A) 1926 (C) 1946 4. (B) 1936 (D) 1956 ? (A) NTCS (C) NTSE (B) PAL (D) SECAM . . . . (A) (B) - (C) - (D) 6. TRP . . , (A) (B) (C) (D) 7. ? 5. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, _____ (A) 60 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 70 3 P.T.O. 8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP (A) N (B) M (C) O (D) L 8. YVSP .. 9. Given that in a code language, 645 means day is warm ; 42 means warm spring and 634 means spring is sunny ; which digit represents sunny ? (A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5 9. 10. The basis of the following classification is : first President of India author of Godan books in my library , blue things and students who work hard (A) Common names (B) Proper names (C) Descriptive phrases (D) Indefinite description 10. 11. In the expression Nothing is larger than itself the relation is larger than is (A) antisymmetric (B) asymmetrical (C) intransitive (D) irreflexive 11. 12. Assertion (A) : There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes being committed than ever before. Reason (R) : Because to reduce crime we must eliminate the laws. Choose the correct answer from below : (A) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (B) (A) is false, (R) is true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). (C) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (D) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). W-00 ? (A) N (C) O (B) M (D) L , 645 ; 42 634 ? (A) 3 (C) 4 (B) 2 (D) 5 : , , , - (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D) 12. (A) : , (R) : , : (A) (A) , (R) (R), (A) (B) (A) , (R) (R), (A) (C) (A) , (R) (R), (A) (D) (A) , (R) (R), (A) 4 13. If the proposition All men are not mortal is true then which of the following inferences is correct ? Choose from the code given below : 1. All men are mortal is true. 2. Some men are mortal is false. 3. No men are mortal is doubtful. 4. All men are mortal is false. Code : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 13. , ? : 1. 2. 3. 4. : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 2, 3 4 (C) 1, 3 4 (D) 1 3 14. Determine the nature of the following definition : Abortion means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings. (A) Lexical (B) Persuasive (C) Stipulative (D) Theoretical 14. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 15. Which one of the following is not an argument ? (A) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night. (B) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, he will be eating at night. (C) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day. (D) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night. 15. ? (A) , (B) , , (C) , (D) , 16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to (A) represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form. (B) represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form. (C) represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form. (D) assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form. 16. , (A) - (B) , (C) (D) , W-00 5 P.T.O. 17. Reasoning by analogy leads to (A) certainty (B) definite conclusion (C) predictive conjecture (D) surety 17. (A) (B) (C) (D) 18. Which of the following statements are false ? Choose from the code given below : 1. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general. 2. A cogent argument must be inductively strong. 3. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion. 4. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as true or false . Code : (A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 3 (C) 2 and 4 (D) 1 and 2 18. ? : 1. 2. 3. 4. : (A) 2, 3 4 (B) 1 3 (C) 2 4 (D) 1 2 19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F and C, A is between E and D, F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F ? (A) B (B) C (C) D (D) E 19. : A, B, C, D, E F F C B , E D A , F, D A F ? 20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter ? (A) 20% (B) 25% (C) 30% (D) 33.33% 20. 21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7 and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that (A) y can be exactly determined (B) y may be either of two values (C) y may be any of three values (D) there is no value of y satisfying these conditions 21. W-00 (A) B (C) D 25% ? (A) 20% (C) 30% 6 (B) C (D) E (B) 25% (D) 33.33% y 2 7 y 5 10 , - (A) y - (B) y (C) y (D) y 22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30 and 60 hours respectively. The first one was opened at 6 AM, second at 7 AM, third at 8 AM and the fourth at 9 AM. When will the reservoir be filled ? (A) 11 AM (B) 12 Noon (C) 1 PM (D) 1:30 PM 22. 15, 20, 30 60 : 6 AM , 7 AM , 8 AM 9 AM ? (A) 11 AM (C) 1 PM The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in percentage terms in the Pie Chart given below ; (B) 12 Noon ( ) (D) 1.30 PM 97 GW : 23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation ? (A) 6.79 GW (B) 19.4 GW (C) 9.7 GW (D) 29.1 GW 23. 24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation ? (A) 29.1 GW (B) 26.19 GW (C) 67.9 GW (D) 97 GW 24. ? (A) 6.79 GW (C) 9.7 GW (B) 19.4 GW (D) 29.1 GW ? (A) 29.1 GW (C) 67.9 GW (B) 26.19 GW (D) 97 GW ( 23 24) For Blind Students Only (Questions 23 24) , 2 * ? 23. In a normally distributed data set, what percentage of data points lie between mean + 2 * standard deviation ? (A) ~ 95% (B) ~ 68% (C) ~ 50% (D) ~ 37% 23. 24. 10 is the mean of a set of 7 observations and 5 is the mean of a set of 3 observations. The mean of the combined set is given by (A) 7.5 (B) 8.5 (C) 10 (D) 15 24. 7 W-00 (A) ~ 95% (C) ~ 50% (B) ~ 68% (D) ~ 37% 10 3 5 (A) 7.5 (C) 10 7 (B) 8.5 (D) 15 P.T.O. : (A) 25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the (A) Phone lines (B) LAN (C) Internet (D) a Server 25. TCP/IP 26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for (A) American Stock Code for Information Interchange (B) American Standard Code for Information Interchange (C) African Standard Code for Information Interchange (D) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change 26. ASCII / (A) (B) (C) (D) 27. Which of the following is not a programming language ? (A) Pascal (B) Microsoft Office (C) Java (D) C++ 27. ? (A) (B) (C) 28. Minimum number of bits required to store any 3 digit decimal number is equal to (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 10 28. 29. Internet explorer is a type of (A) Operating System (B) Compiler (C) Browser (D) IP address 29. W-00 (B) LAN (C) (D) (D) C++ 3 ( ) ( ) ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 8 3 5 8 10 ? (A) (B) (C) (D) IP ( ) 30. POP3 IMAP - 30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which (A) (A) One automatically gets one s mail everyday (B) (C) (B) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one s mail One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email (C) (D) (D) One does not need any telephone lines 31. ? (A) - (B) (C) PAN ( ) (D) 32. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 33. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 34. 31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) Sulphur di-oxide (B) Ozone (C) PAN (D) Nitrous oxide 32. Which is the chlorofluorocarbons ? source of (A) Thermal power plants (B) Automobiles (C) Refrigeration and Airconditioning (D) Fertilizers 33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource ? (A) Clean air (C) (B) Fertile soil Fresh water (D) Salt 34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water ? (A) Total dissolved solids (B) Coliform count (C) Dissolved oxygen (D) Density W-00 - 9 P.T.O. 35. S and P waves are associated with (A) floods (B) wind energy (C) earthquakes (D) tidal energy 35. S P ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 36. Match Lists I and II and select the correct answer from the codes given below : List I List II (i) Ozone hole (a) Tsunami (ii) Greenhouse (b) UV effect radiations (iii) Natural (c) Methane hazards (iv) Sustainable (d) Eco-centrism development Codes : (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (A) (b) (c) (a) (d) (B) (c) (b) (a) (d) (C) (d) (c) (a) (b) (D) (d) (b) (c) (a) 36. -I -II : 37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at (A) Dharmshala (B) Shimla (C) Solan (D) Chandigarh 37. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education. (A) 04 (B) 05 (C) 06 (D) 08 38. (NCTE) W-00 -I (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) -II (a) (b) UV (c) ( ) (d) : (i) (A) (b) (B) (c) (C) (d) (D) (d) (A) 04 (B) 05 (C) 06 (D) 08 10 (ii) (c) (b) (c) (b) (iii) (a) (a) (a) (c) (iv) (d) (d) (b) (a) 39. Which of the following rights was considered the Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar ? (A) Freedom of Speech (B) Right to Equality (C) Right to Freedom of Religion (D) Right to Constitutional Remedies 39. . . . ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India ? (A) Lord Cornwallis (B) Warren Hastings (C) The Royal Commission on Decentralisation (D) Sir Charles Metcalfe 40. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 41. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include 1. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem 2. To develop the scientific temper. 3. Respect for the Government. 4. To protect Wildlife. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Codes : (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 3, 4 and 2 41. : 1. , 2. : 3. 4. : : (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 2 4 (C) 2, 3 4 (D) 1, 3, 4 2 42. The President of India takes oath (A) to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India. (B) to bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India. (C) to uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country. (D) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law of the country. 42. (A) (B) (C) (D) , W-00 11 P.T.O. 43. - , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 44. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 45. ? (A) (B) (C) ( ) (D) 46. 43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class ? , ? (A) (B) (C) (D) (A) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer. (B) Take care of him sympathetically in the class- room. (C) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything. (D) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him. 44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test ? (A) Reliability (C) (B) Objectivity Ambiguity (D) Validity 45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid ? (A) Overhead projector (B) Blackboard (C) Epidiascope (D) Slide projector 46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard ? (A) Writing fast and as clearly as possible. (B) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it. (C) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them. (D) Writing the important points as clearly as possible. W-00 12 47. A teacher can be successful if he/she (A) helps students in becoming better citizens (B) imparts subject knowledge to students (C) prepares students to pass the examination (D) presents the subject matter in a well organized manner 48. Dynamic approach to teaching means (A) Teaching should be forceful and effective (B) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic (C) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic (D) The students should be required to learn through activities 49. The research that aims at immediate application is (A) Action Research (B) Empirical Research (C) Conceptual Research (D) Fundamental Research 50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work which one of the following expressions is used ? (A) ibid (B) et.al (C) op.cit : (D) loc.cit. 51. Nine year olds are taller than seven year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from (A) Vertical study (B) Cross-sectional study (C) Time series study (D) Experimental study 52. Conferences are meant for (A) Multiple target groups (B) Group discussions (C) Show-casing new Research (D) All the above 53. Ex Post Facto research means (A) The research is carried out after the incident (B) The research is carried out prior to the incident (C) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident. (D) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident. 54. Research ethics do not include (A) Honesty (B) Subjectivity (C) Integrity (D) Objectivity W-00 (A) (B) (C) (D) 48. (A) (B) (C) (D) 49. : (A) (B) (C) (D) 50. ( ) : 47. (A) ibid (C) op.cit : (B) et.al (D) loc.cit. : (A) (B) ( - ) (C) (D) 52. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 53. (A) (B) (C) - (D) 54. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 51. 13 P.T.O. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions 55 to 60 : James Madison said, A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives. In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. But in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government, but as an instrument for improving Government-Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government functioning for the good of our People. He further said, This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews. The Commission, in its Report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in Executive, Legislature and Judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the Judiciary does is open to public scrutiny, Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the Judiciary for about ` 700 crores which would bring about systematic classification, standardization and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from nontransparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of State. 55. A person gets power (A) by acquiring knowledge (B) from the Official Secrets Act, 1923 (C) through openings (D) by denying public information 56. Right to Information is a major step forward to (A) enable citizens to participate fully in the decision making process (B) to make the people aware of the Act (C) to gain knowledge of administration (D) to make the people Government friendly 57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill (A) to provide power to the civil servants (B) as an instrument for improving Government-citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring and effective Government (C) a draconian law against the officials (D) to check the harassment of the people 58. The Commission made the Bill effective by (A) extending power to the executive authorities (B) combining the executive and legislative power (C) recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the act in letter and spirit (D) educating the people before its implementation 59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that (A) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning. (B) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit. (C) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government (D) All the above 60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State. These three organs are (A) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Judiciary (B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Executive (C) Judiciary, Legislature and the Commission (D) Legislature, Executive and Judiciary W-00 14 . 55 60 : , 1923 , , , , , , , , , ( ) , - , , :, , , , , : , , ` 700 - , 55. (A) (B) , 1923 (C) (D) 56. ? (A) (B) (C) (D) 57. ? (A) (B) - , (C) (D) 58. ? (A) (B) (C) : (D) 59. (A) (B) (C) ( ) (D) 60. (A) , (B) , (C) , (D) , W-00 SET-0 15 P.T.O. Space For Rough Work W-00 16

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