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ICSE Class X Sample / Model Paper 2024 : History and Civics (Solved)

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Abir Sengupta
St. Luke's Day School, Naihati, North 24 Parganas

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ICSE Examination Paper 2024 HISTORY & CIVICS (H.C.G. Paper-1) Class-10th (Solved) Maximum Marks: 80 Time allowed: Two hours Answers to this paper must be written on the answer sheet provided separately. You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes. This time is to be spent in reading the question paper. The time given at the head of this paper is the time allowed for writing the answers. Attempt all questions from Part I (Compulsory). A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II, two out of three questions from Section A and three out of five questions from Section B. The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. PART I (30 Marks) (Attempt all questions from this Part.) Question 1 Select the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [16] (Do not copy the questions, write the correct answer only). (i) The salaries and allowances of the ministers are decided by the: (a) Parliament (b) Finance Minister (c) President (d) Prime Minister (ii) Civil Cases: Court of District Judge :: Criminal Cases: (a) Revenue Court (b) Family Court (c) Sessions Court (d) Commissioner s Court (iii) The Lok Adalat has many advantages. Which of the following statements about the advantages of the Lok Adalat is best described in the picture given above? (a) It is inexpensive (b) It is organised in various parts of the country (c) It works on the spirit of compromise (d) It reduces the burden of the higher courts (iv) Given below are details of Indian citizens. Select the ones who are eligible for appointment as a High Court Judge: Candidate Age Details P 65 Is a distinguished jurist Q 61 Has been a High Court Advocate for 10 years R 67 Has been a High Court Advocate for 5 years S 56 Has held a judicial office for at least 10 years (a) P and R (b) Q and S (c) R and P (d) Q and R (v) The strength of the house is 550. On a particular day, 50 members are present. The speaker decides to adjourn the house. Identify the MOST LIKELY reason for the adjournment. (a) Disorder in the house (b) Lack of quorum (c) Breach of privilege (d) Contempt of the house (vi) During a hung assembly when no party gets the majority, the President appoints the Prime Minister. What power is the President exercising? (a) Legislative (b) Executive (c) Discretionary (d) Judicial (vii) Read the two statements given below and select the option that shows the correct relationship between (A) and (R): Assertion (A): Forward Bloc had the objective of abolishing Zamindari System. Reason (R): Subhash Chandra Bose wanted to establish a socialist state. (a) A is true but R is false (b) R is the reason for A (c) Both A and R are false (d) Only R is true, A is false (viii) The _____________aimed to introduce equality between British and Indian Judges. (a) Vernacular Press Act (b) Gagging Act (c) Indian Universities Act (d) Ilbert Bill Solved Paper - 2024 (ix) The Rowlatt Act was called the Black Act because the Indians: (a) could not possess any arms (b) could not export any goods (c) could be arrested without a warrant (d) could be sent overseas on duty (x) Who organised the Grand Delhi Durbar? (a) Lord Curzon (b) Lord Canning (c) Lord Lytton (d) Lord Dalhousie (xi) Tina is inspired by the methods of the Early Nationalists and wants to follow them. She notices that the road leading to her school is damaged and has many potholes. Which of the following methods is she MOST LIKELY to follow, to solve this problem? (a) Boycott the civic authorities (b) Gather a group of students and protest (c) Write a petition to the authorities highlighting the problem (d) Block the entrance to the road (xii) Given below are the objectives of the Indian National Army. Identify the odd one out of the following: (a) To organise a provisional government of Free India (b) Total mobilisation of Indian manpower and money (c) Unity, faith and sacrifice (d) To train and organise public opinion in the country (xiii) Tahir is preparing to give a speech about the Sati system in India. Which of the following Indian leader s contribution MUST he mention in his speech? (a) Raja Rammohan Roy (b) W. C. Bonerjee (c) Bipin Chandra Pal (d) Jyotiba Phule (xiv) Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the Second World War? (a) Austria and Hungary became separate states (b) Defeat of the axis powers (c) Beginning of the Cold War (d) Formation of the United Nations (xv) Identify the principle of Panchsheel. (a) Mutual non-aggression (b) Regulate armaments (c) Take action against aggressor (d) Recommend admission of members (xvi) Which incident depicted in the above cartoon led to the beginning of the Second World War? (a) Hitler s policy of Imperialism (b) Hitler s attack on Poland (c) Hitler s annexation of Austria (d) Hitler s attack on Czechoslovakia Question 2 (i) Mention any two writs issued by the High Court. [2] (ii) Imagine you are an Indian ruler who has signed the Subsidiary Alliance. Mention any two conditions of this agreement which will affect you. [2] (iii) Mention any two causes of the Quit India Movement. [2] (iv) In which year did the Surat Split happen? What was the result of this split? [2] (v) Mention any two common ideologies of Fascism and Nazism. [2] (vi) Name the two cities of Japan which were bombed by America in the year 1945. [2] (vii) Read the given news carefully and answer the question that follows: [2] Govt s power to promulgate, repromulgate Ordinances why and how An Ordinance shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament . But the government is required to bring an Ordinance before Parliament for ratification and failure to do so will lead to its lapsing at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament . The Indian Express May 25, 2023 Mention any two points regarding an ordinance that can be deduced from the above new. PART II SECTION A (20 Marks) (Attempt any two questions from this Section.) Question 3 The Union Parliament is the supreme legislative body in the country. With reference to the Indian Parliament answer the following questions: (i) The Rajya Sabha is called a Permanent House. Explain this statement. [3] (ii) Explain the composition of the Rajya Sabha. [3] (iii) Mention any two exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha and two powers exclusive to the Rajya Sabha. [4] Question 4 The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister aids and advises the President. In this context, answer the following questions: (i) Mention any three points to distinguish between the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet. [3] (ii) Who appoints the Cabinet Ministers? Mention any two administrative powers of the Cabinet. [3] Oswaal ICSE HISTORY & CIVICS (H.C.G PAPER-1), Class-X (iii) The President is the nominal head of the Indian Union. Mention any four functions of the Prime Minister with reference to the President. [4] Question 5 The judiciary is the system of courts that interprets and guards the Indian Constitution. With reference to the Supreme Court of India, answer the following: (i) What is the composition of the Supreme Court? Why is it called the Court of Record? [3] (ii) Explain the power of Judicial Review. [3] (iii) What is meant by the term Original Jurisdiction? Mention any three cases which come under this jurisdiction. [4] SECTION B (30 Marks) (Attempt any three questions from this Section.) Question 6 The Revolt of 1857 was the beginning of the independence struggle against the colonial rule of the British. With reference to the consequences of the Revolt, answer the following: (i) Mention any three changes made in the administration with the end of the Company s Rule. [3] (ii) State any three policies promised to Indians in Queen Victoria s Proclamation. [3] (iii) Mention any four changes made in the army after the Revolt. [4] Question 7 The Indian National Movement is divided into three phases. With reference to the Second Phase of the Indian National Movement, answer the following questions: (i) Who partitioned Bengal? Mention any two points to explain the perspective of the Nationalists regarding the actual motive behind the decision of Partition. [3] (ii) What was the objective of the Assertive Nationalists? Mention any two contributions of Bal Gangadhar Tilak. [3] (iii) In which year was the Muslim League formed? Mention any three objectives of the Muslim League. [4] Question 8 Look at the given picture and answer the following questions: (i) Name the Viceroy who announced the plan for smooth transfer of power. Mention any two clauses of his plan with reference to the Princely States. [3] (ii) Mention any three reasons for the acceptance of his plan by the Congress. [3] (iii) Mention any four provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947. [4] Question 9 The final act of the long-drawn-out negotiations took place at Versailles on Saturday afternoon, and to-day Germany and the Allies always with the exception of America are at peace. Peace is a blessed word, and both the word and the fact are welcome to-day. So far as Germany is concerned there is for the present an end of strife, and at least a formal return to the decent relations of civilised states. Editorial: Peace in force (12 January 1920) The Guardian (i) Mention any three causes of the World War which ended with the signing of the treaty being discussed in the passage above. [3] (ii) Name the organisation which was established in 1920 to maintain peace after this war. Mention [3] any two of its objectives. (iii) Mention any four clauses of the Treaty which affected Germany. [4] Question 10 Both the United Nations Organisation and the NonAligned Movement aim to achieve international peace and security. In this context, answer the following: (i) Mention any three functions of the Security Council. [3] (ii) Mention any three functions of the World Health Organisation. [3] (iii) Name any two founders of the Non-Aligned Movement. Mention any two of its objectives. [4] Solved Paper - 2024 ANSWERS PART I (30 Marks) Answer 1 (i) Option (a) is correct. Explanation: The Parliament decides the salaries and allowances of its members and other dignitaries such as the ministers. (ii) Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The Court of District Judge is the highest Civil Court of the district, whereas Sessions Court is the highest Criminal Court of the district. (iii) Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Lok Adalats has set up in India in 1982 in Gujrat to provide east and unexpensive judgement. (iv) Option (b) is correct. Explanation: To be appointed as a Judge of a High Court, a person : (i) Should be a citizen of India. (ii) Should not be above 62 years of age. (iii) Should have held a judicial office within the Indian territory for at least 10 years. (iv) or should have been an advocate of a High Civil Court (or High Court in succession) for at least 10 years. (v) Option (b) is correct. Explanation: The Quorum means the minimum number of members required to be present in order to conduct a sitting or enable the business of the house. It is fixed at 1/10th of the total membership of each house. (vi) Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Discretionary Powers of the President When no party gains majority in the Lok Sabha, the President, uses his/her discretionary power to appoints the Prime Minister. After the vote of no-confidence is passed against the prevailing government, the President may dissolve the Parliament or ask the leader of another party to prove its majority on the floor of the house. He/She can also dismiss ministers in case the Council of Ministers loses the confidence of the house but refuses to resign. (vii) Option (b) is correct. Explanation: Forward Bloc was founded by Subash Chandra Bose in May 1939, he believed in a Socialist State. (viii) Option (d) is correct. Explanation: Ilbert Bill, in the history of India, a controversial measure proposed in 1883 that sought to allow senior Indian magistrates to preside over cases involving British subjects in India. (ix) Option (c) is correct. Explanation: The Rowlatt Act 1919 gave immense powers to the police to search a place or arrest a person on suspicion, without any warrant. The political offenders were to be tried without trial by the jury. (x) Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Lord Lytton refers to Robert Bulwer-Lytton, 1st Earl of Lytton, who served as Viceroy of India from 1876 to 1880. He was known for organising the Grand Delhi Durbar of 1877, which was held to mark the proclamation of Queen Victoria as Empress of India. (xi) Option (c) is correct. Explanation: Early Nationalist believed in the justice of the Britishers and wanted to present their demands through petitions. (xii) Option (d) is correct. Explanation: (i) To organise an armed revolution and to fight the British Army with modern arms. (ii) To use the Indians living abroad in East Asia and then to confront the British. (iii) To organise a Provisional Government to free India. (iv) Total mobilisation of the Indian man-power and money for a total war. (v) The motto of the INA was Unity, Faith, Sacrifice . (vi) To train people for armed struggle inside and outside the country. (vii) To throw the British out of the country. (xiii) Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Raja Rammohan Roy has often been referred to as Father of Modern Indian Renaissance as he took the issues of women emancipation and spoke against evils such as female infanticide, child marriage and Sati. (xiv) Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Consequences of Second World War: Destruction of life and property. Defeat of the Axis Powers by the Allied Powers. Many new weapons of mass destruction were invented and used. Formation of the UN. The world was divided into two power blocs the Democratic or Capitalist bloc led by the USA and the Communist bloc led by the erstwhile Soviet Union. Beginning of the Cold War between two power blocs. Division of Germany Japan became weak and its emperor was reduced to a constitutional head. Imperialism came to an end. Fall of the dictatorship. Decolonisation The USA and the Soviet Union became superpowers. (xv) Option (a) is correct. Explanation: Basic principles are: Oswaal ICSE HISTORY & CIVICS (H.C.G PAPER-1), Class-X (i) Mutual respect for one another s territorial integrity. (ii) Non-aggression. (iii) Non-interference in one another s internal affairs. (iv) Equality and mutual benefit. (v) Peaceful co-existence. (xvi) Option (b) is correct. Explanation: In September 1939, Hitler attacked on Poland to regain the Danzing port. Answer 2 (i) Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari and Quo-Warranto. (Any two) (ii) (a) As a result of Indian rulers disbanding their armies, many people were rendered unemployed. (b) Many Indian states lost their independence. (c) Slowly most parts of India were coming under British control. (Any two) (iii) (a) Failure of the Cripps Mission (b) Japanese threat (c) Worsening of Communal problems and new confidence that the people had attained. (d) The movement hastened the British decision to quit India. (Any two points) [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2018] (iv) 1907 (a) The Surat Split of the Indian National Congress (INC) resulted in the party s division into two groups, i.e., the Extremists and the Moderates. (b) This division weakened Congress and reduced its effectiveness in the fight for Indian independence. (Any one) (v) Similarities between the ideologies of Fascism and Nazism: (a) Both pursue collectivism (ownership of the land and the means of production by the State) as a part of an economy led by the state. The establishment of a dictatorship led by a leader who literally has all the powers and glorifies Imperialism and Militarism. (b) They reject Democracy and traditional left and right wing parties, oppose freedom of speech and are strongly against Communism and Capitalism, Feminism and homosexuality alike. (c) Their promotion of Nationalism is being taken to an extreme and they aim for unity within their own respective States by holding mass demonstrations and military parades. (d) Both are totalitarian ideologies, which means that they seek to control all aspects of public and private life alike. (e) Neither believes in class conflicts and conflicts of interest as a result of their idea of class collaboration instead of class struggle (this is where both ideologies find themselves directly opposing Socialism and Communism). (Any two points) [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2018] (vi) On 6 August 1945 Hiroshima and 9 August 1945 Nagasaki. (vii) (a) The ordinances can only be promulgated when both Houses of the Parliament are not in session. (b) It has to be laid before both the Houses when they reassemble. (c) Ordinance can last maximum for a period of six months and it ceases to exist if Parliament takes no action within six weeks from its reassembly. So the maximum life of an ordinance can be six months. PART II SECTION A (20 Marks) Answer 3 (i) (a) The Rajya Sabha, termed the Permanent House, remains undissolved. (b) Every two years, one third of members retire and new elections occur. (c) Members hold a 6-year term. (ii) (a) The Rajya Sabha includes elected and nominated members. (b) Of 250 members, 12 are nominated by the President for notable contributions. (c) The rest 238 are elected from states and union territories. (iii) A. Lok Sabha: (i) Only Lok Sabha introduces Money Bills and NoConfidence Motions. (ii) The Lok Sabha alone can vote a Minister out of office. B. Rajya Sabha: (i) Decides if a State List subject gains national importance for inclusion in the Union List. (ii) According to Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can, through a 2/3rd majority resolution, authorise Parliament to legislate on State List matters. Additionally, during a national emergency proclamation, Parliament gains the authority to legislate on State List matters. (iii) Decides on establishing new All-India Services (Article 312). (iv) Passes resolutions to implement international agreements. (v) Becomes the sole de jure Parliament when Lok Sabha dissolves. Answer 4 Council of Ministers Cabinet Consists of all the three Is a group of senior ministers categories of ministers. holding important portfolios The PM may or may The PM always consults not consult them them. Rarely meets as a whole Meets as frequently as possible Does not advise the Advises the President through the PM Larger group President Smaller group May or may not hold Hold important Portfolios important Portfolios (Any three points) [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2013] Solved Paper - 2024 Answer 4 (ii) The President of India appoints the Cabinet Ministers based on the advice of the Prime Minister. Administrative powers of the Cabinet: (a) Policy making: The Cabinet formulates and decides on crucial government policies concerning various domains like defense, economy and foreign affairs. (b) Coordination: The Cabinet ensures smooth collaboration and coordination between different government departments for effective policy implementation. (c) Appointments: Makes recommendations to President on important Constitutional offices like Election Commissioner, Comptroller and Auditor General, Governors and Ambassadors. (d) Inter-Ministerial Coordination: Coordinates with various ministries for policy making and implementation. (iii) The Prime Minister, as the head of government, holds significant power in India, even though the President is the nominal head of state. Here are four key functions of the Prime Minister with reference to the President: (a) Advises on appointments: The Prime Minister recommends individuals for appointment to various key positions, including cabinet ministers, to the President. (b) Informs about policy decisions: The Prime Minister keeps the President informed about major policy decisions taken by the cabinet. (c) Updates on developments: The Prime Minister briefs the President on critical national and international developments. (d) Assent for bills: The Prime Minister seeks the President s assent for bills passed by the Parliament before they become law. Answer 5 (i) There are 33 Judges and a Chief Justice of India. The Supreme Court is a Court of Record as: (a) All decisions, judgments, proceedings, issued by the Supreme Court are duly printed, preserved and kept as records. (b) These judgments have a reference value. (c) They are not to be questioned on being produced before any court. The High Court and other lower courts are expected to decide cases in the light of judgement taken by the Supreme Court. [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2020] (ii) Power of Judicial Review of the Supreme Court: (a) The Supreme Court is the final interpreter of the constitution. (b) It has the power to review laws passed by the Union or State Legislature or Executive. (c) The Supreme Court can declare a law ultra vires or null and void, if it is against the letter and spirit of the constitution or controversial any provision of the constitution. [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2020] (iii) Original Jurisdiction - It refers to the power to hear and determine a dispute in the first instance. Exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to the following cases: (i) The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in all disputes between the Union and States as well as between the States. (ii) Protection of Fundamental Rights. (iii) Final Interpretation of the Constitution. (iv) Transfer of cases from Lower Court. (v) In a dispute between the Union and the State on one side and any other State on the other side. (Any three) [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2020] Answer 6 SECTION B (30 Marks) (i) (a) End of Company s rule and the power transferred to the Crown. (b) Company s Board of Control and the Court of Directors were abolished. (c) The Secretary of State to be assisted by the Indian Council of 15 members. (d) Appointments in the Civil Services to be made by open competition under rules made by the Secretary of State. (e) The Viceroy took over the administration of the British Government in India. (f) Salary and allowances were to be found out of revenue of India. (g) The Governor General received the additional title of Viceroy. (Any three points) [ICSE Marking Scheme-2018] (ii) Queen Victoria s Proclamation of 1858, issued after the Indian Rebellion of 1857, promised several policies to Indians: (a) Religious Tolerance and Equality: The Proclamation guaranteed the freedom of religion and pledged that all of her subjects, regardless of their race or creed, would be treated impartially. This assurance aimed to alleviate concerns among Indians about religious discrimination and ensure that individuals of all faiths could freely practice their religion. (b) Property Rights Protection: The Proclamation assured Indians that their property rights would be respected and protected. It stated that existing landholdings and property rights would be safeguarded, offering reassurance to the Indian population that their land and possessions would not be arbitrarily confiscated by the British authorities. (c) Justice and Fair Treatment: Queen Victoria s Proclamation promised that justice would be administered impartially to all her subjects, without regard to their race or religion. This commitment aimed to address grievances regarding unequal treatment under British law and to establish a sense of fairness and equality in the legal system. Oswaal ICSE HISTORY & CIVICS (H.C.G PAPER-1), Class-X (iii) Four changes which were introduced are as given below : (a) Domination of the European branch over the Indian branches was ensured. (b) The ratio of the European soldiers has been increased in the troops. (c) Caste and communal companies were introduced in all the regiments and Indian regiments were made a mixture of various socioethnic groups so as to balance each other. (d) Efforts were made to isolate the soldiers from life and thoughts of rest of the population and from the views of the scholars through measures such as preventing newspapers, journals and nationalist publications from reaching them. Answer 7 (i) Lord Curzon (a) The real motives behind the partition plan were the British desire to weaken Bengal. (b) Divide the Muslims and Hindus on the basis of religion. (ii) The immediate attainment of Swaraj was the main objective of the Assertive Nationalists. Bal Gangadhar Tilak contributions to the National Movement are : (a) Close contact with masses. (b) Demand for Swaraj. (c) Inculcating courage, self-defence, patriotism by organising akharas and lathi clubs. (d) Started Ganapati and Shivaji festivals to keep the spirit of nationalism high. (e) Also started two newspapers Maratha and Kesari to popularise his ideas. (f) He wrote two books Gita Rahasya and the Arctic Home of the Vedas. (g) Establishment of Home Rule League in 1916, forerunner of Mahatma Gandhi, preached the ideas of Swadeshi, Boycott and Prohibition. (h) He also played important role in the AntiPartition Movement. (Any two points) [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2018] (iii) 1906 Objectives of the League: (i) To promote among India s Muslims, feeling of loyalty towards the British Government. (ii) The League would also remove misconceptions that may arise as to the intentions of Government in relation to Indian Muslims. (iii) To protect the political and other rights of the Muslims and to place their needs and aspirations before the Government in mild and moderate language. (iv) To prevent the rise of any feeling of hostility between Muslims and other communities. (Any three points) [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2016] Answer 8 (i) Lord Mountbatten His proposals regarding Princely States were: (a) All treaties with Princely States done by the British would come to an end. (b) Princely States would be free to join India or Pakistan or remain independent. (ii) Important reasons for the All-India Congress Committee accepting the Mountbatten Plan: (a) Muslim League had joined the Interim Government to obstruct work and not to cooperate with Congress. (b) Communal riots were on immense rise. (c) A smaller India with a strong Central Government was better than a bigger country with a weak Central power. (d) There would be no more separate electorate and other undemocratic procedures. (Any three points) [ICSE Marking Scheme, 2020] (iii) Main Provisions (a) Partition of India: The Indian Independence Act of 1947 led to the partition of British India into two independent dominions India and Pakistan. Pakistan to be made up of West Punjab, Sindh, NWFP, Sylhet, East Bengal and Baluchistan. (b) Abolition of Paramountcy: The Act abolished the concept of paramountcy, which had given the British Crown suzerainty over princely states. Princely states were given the choice to accede to either India or Pakistan or to remain independent. (c) Constitutional Framework: The Act provided the framework for the two newly created dominions to draft their constitutions. It granted the power to the Constituent Assemblies of India and Pakistan to frame and adopt their respective constitutions. (d) Governor-General s Powers: The Act defined the powers of the Governor General for both India and Pakistan. It allowed each dominion to have its own Governor General, who could exercise powers on behalf of the British Crown until the adoption of a new constitution. Answer 9 (i) Causes of the First World War Franco German Rivalry Anglo German Rivalry Enmity between Austria and Russia on Balkan Politics Scramble for new Colonies Militant Nationalism/ Intense Nationalism of Narrow Kind . (Any three points) (ii) The organisation established in 1920 to maintain peace after World War I was the League of Nations. Two of its objectives were: (a) Prevention of War: The League aimed to prevent conflicts and wars between nations through diplomacy, negotiation, and collective security. (b) Promotion of Disarmament: Another objective was the promotion of disarmament to reduce the Solved Paper - 2024 likelihood of future wars. The League advocated for arms reduction and limitation to maintain global peace. (c) To maintain open, just and honourable relations among nations. (iii) Treaty of Versailles concerning Germany: (i) It was declared guilty of aggression and had to pay war reparation of 33 billion dollars. (ii) The area of the Rhine valley was de-militarised and the German territory, west of Rhine was to be occupied by the Allied troops for 15 years. (iii) Danzig became a free port in the Polish territory. (iv) The territory of Alsace Lorraine given to France. (v) The Saar coal mines were given to France. (vi) Germany Lost all her colonies to the Allies. (vii) The German Force was restricted to 1 lakh, the Navy to 15,000 men and 24 ships. (vii) The Air force and submarines were banned. (Any four points) Answer 10 (i) The United Nations Security Council has several functions, including: (a) Maintenance of International Peace and Security: The primary function of the Security Council is to maintain international peace and security. It takes measures to prevent and resolve conflicts, as well as to respond to threats to peace. (b) Peacekeeping Operations: The Security Council can authorise the deployment of peacekeeping forces to areas of conflict or post-conflict situations to maintain or restore peace. (c) Imposition of Sanctions: In cases of threats to peace or acts of aggression, the Security Council has the authority to impose economic and diplomatic sanctions on countries to encourage compliance with its resolutions. (d) Authorisation of Use of Force: The Security Council has the power to authorise the use of force to maintain or restore international peace and security. This includes the approval of military interventions in certain situations. (ii) (a) It promotes and coordinates research in health, e.g., control communicable diseases, maternal and child health, cancer, diabetes, AIDS, heart problems, blindness, etc. (b) Sets international standards regarding food, biological drugs, medicines and vaccines. (c) Makes efforts to improve nutrition, sanitation, housing, working conditions and the environment, in general. (e) On request, helps the governments to provide safe drinking water. (f) Helps to fight against diseases all over the world. Smallpox has been completely wiped out. (g) Acts as the Centre of Medical and Scientific Information with its splendid library at Geneva. (h) Organises Seminars and Conferences to train health workers all over the world to fight diseases and eliminate them. (Any three points) (iii) The Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) was founded in 1961 by the leaders: Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia) Jawaharlal Nehru (India) Gamal Abdel Nasser (Egypt) The objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement are: (a) Promotion of Global Peace: NAM aims to promote peace and security on a global scale, advocating for the resolution of international conflicts through peaceful means and diplomacy. (b) Opposition to Colonialism and Imperialism: The movement stands against colonialism and imperialism, supporting the self-determination of nations and the end of colonial rule, highlighted in their Bandung Conference. (c) Economic Cooperation: NAM under their NIEO initiative, encouraged economic cooperation among member countries, striving for mutual benefit and development without aligning with major power blocs. From the 1970s onward, Developing States advocated for changes in institutions like the World Bank and IMF, favourable conditions for foreign trade, technology transfer and foreign investment to stimulate their economic growth. (d) Disarmament: NAM supports disarmament and specifically opposes the acquisition and deployment of nuclear weapons.

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